CSIS 330 final exam Liberty University complete answers

CSIS 330 final exam Liberty University complete answers

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· Question 1

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Data ______________ means having the assurance that the information has not been altered in transmission from origin to destination.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 2

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
According to the textbook, initial business data networks evolved to enable the transmission of many different types of information services except
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 3

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
_________ clouds are made up of two or more clouds where each part remains a distinctive object, but both are connected using a single architecture.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 4

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which technology would be best to provide a home user with a high-speed always-on Internet connection?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 5

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
____________________________ give(s) people the opportunity to work together on shared documents.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 6

 

 
 
 
Which of the following is not one of the three primary collaboration questions that organizations must ask to achieve effective collaboration?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 7

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
A(n) _______________________ is an attack to steal the login credential of a user to access private data.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 8

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following is not one of the primary types of clouds?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 9

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
IP addresses can be assigned to both physical ports and virtual interfaces on devices.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 10

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What key is used to return to the EXEC prompt at the –More—prompt?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 11

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which mode is used to configure one of the physical or virtual lines?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 12

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
From the CLI of a switch with an address of 192.168.1.44, what command would be used to verify end-to-end connectivity to another host?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 13

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
According to the textbook, the use of ______________________ is the primary means of enabling devices to locate one another and establish end-to-end communication of the Internet.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 14

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following prompts indicates that the user is in Privileged EXEC mode?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 15

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
When a user interacts with the shell of the Cisco IOS by entering commands on the keyboard at a command prompt, he is using the ____________
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 16

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
____________________ is a method for remotely establishing a CLI session of a device, through a virtual interface, over a network.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 17

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which layer of the TCP/IP model controls the hardware devices and media that make up the network?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 18

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which protocol enables clients to access email stored on a mail server and maintains email on the server?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 19

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which layers in the OSI model correspond to the Application layer in the TCP/IP model?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 20

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which layer of the TCP/IP model supports communication between diverse devices across diverse networks?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 21

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which organization coordinates IP address allocation, the management of domain names used by DNS, and the protocol identifiers or port numbers used by TCP and UDP protocols?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 22

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
______ is the IP address of the sending device.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 23

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number F1?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 24

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Is the binary number 00000011 odd or even?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 25

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 00000111?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 26

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 68?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 27

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number F9?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 28

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 01010101?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 29

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following items do not comprise the physical components addressed in physical layer standards?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 30

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following statements is false?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 31

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Coaxial cable was traditionally used in cable television and was capable of transmitting in two directions.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 32

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
_______________________ is the standard commonly known as Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) and uses point-to-multipoint topology to provide wireless broadband access.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 33

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
________________ is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic fields of a signal on one wire to the signal in an adjacent wire.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 34

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
____________ is the simplest topology that consists of a permanent link between two endpoints.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 35

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
To offer wireless capability, a network must incorporate a ____________ to which to connect devices.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 36

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
When using wireless, the signals are patterns of _________________________.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 37

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
On a Windows computer, what command can be used to identify the MAC address of an Ethernet adapter?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 38

 

 
 
 
Which of the following is not a potential problem with ARP?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 39

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
In 1998, the IEEE 802.3ac standard extended the maximum allowable frame size to be 1522 bytes in order to accommodate a technology called ____________________.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 40

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Static entries in the ARP table are time-stamped, and when the time stamp expires, the entry for the devices is removed from the ARP table.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 41

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following Ethernet changes occurred in the year 2002?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 42

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What is the name given to the Ethernet MAC sublayer PDU?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 43

 

 
 
 
Which of the following is not a characteristic of IP?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 44

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following is not a major phase to a router’s bootup process?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 45

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
In what part of a router is the current configuration being used located?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 46

 

 
 
 
Which of the following statements are major issues with IPv4?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 47

 

 
 
 
Which of the following is not a column in an IPv6 Route Table?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 48

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following is not a component of a router?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 49

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which IPv6 8-bit field replaces the IPv4 TTL field?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 50

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
During the boot process of a Cisco router, you notice a series of hash symbols (#) appearing on the terminal emulator screen from the console session.  In what phase is the boot process?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 51

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which port is assigned to DNS?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 52

 

 
 
 
Which of the following is true of the TCP three-way handshake?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 53

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following is not a field in the header of a TCP segment?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 54

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Regulating the amount of data a source transmits is a function of _____________.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 55

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
In the second step of the TCP three-way handshake, which flag(s) is(are) set by the destination host?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 56

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
To establish a TCP connection, the hosts perform a _____________.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 57

 

 
 
 
Which of the following is not a characteristic of TCP?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 58

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
TCP breaks up a message into small pieces known as ______.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 59

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which type of communication is occurring when a packet is sent from one host to all hosts in the network?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 60

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which IPv4 block of addresses is reserved for teaching and learning purposes?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 61

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
IPv6 routing is not enabled by default on a Cisco router.  To enable a router as an IPv6 router, what IOS command must be used?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 62

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Like IPv4, IPv6 uses both the prefix length and the dotted-decimal subnet mask notation for indicate the network portion of an IPv6 address.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 63

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which type of communication is occurring when a packet is sent from one host to another individual host?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 64

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Address resolution is used when a device on the LAN knows the IPv6 unicast address of a destination but does not know its Ethernet MAC address.  To determine the MAC address for the destination, the device will send a(n) ___  message to the solicited-node address. The device that has the targeted IPv6 address will respond with a(n) ____ message containing its Ethernet MAC address.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 65

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
The _____________ is another way of expressing the subnet mask and is written in slash notation.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 66

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
The ___________ manages the allocation of IPv4 and IPv6 addresses.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 67

 

 
 
 
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP.  You need to subnet this network.  You know that the subnet mask will be 255.255.255.252. Therefore, what is the new slash prefix of the network address?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 68

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Using an IPv4 network address of 192.168.2.0/26, what is the first usable host address in the first subnet (i.e. subnet[0])?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 69

 

 
 
 
Using an IPv4 network address of 192.168.2.0/26, what is the first usable host address in the second  subnet (i.e. subnet[1])?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 70

 

 
 
 
How many usable hosts per sub-network will you have using a /17 address?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 71

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
In creating subnets for IPv6, conversion to binary is not required.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 72

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which mask should you use on a point-to-point network link in order to reduce the waste of IP addresses?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 73

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Bits can only be borrowed from the host portion of an IPv4 network address.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 74

 

 
 
 
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP.  You need to subnet this network. You know that you need at least 6 subnets.  How many bits will you need to borrow to achieve this?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 75

 

 
 
 
Which protocol is used to assign an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and DNS address to a host?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 76

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which protocol handles inbound mail delivery?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 77

 

 
 
 
What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 78

 

 
 
 
What is the source address of a DHCPREQUEST message?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 79

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What TCP/IP layer supports the exchange of data between programs running on the source and destination hosts?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 80

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which port(s) is(are) assigned to FTP?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 81

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following is NOT a type of message that can be sent to a web server?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 82

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following is not included in a DHCPOFFER message?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 83

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
A _________ firewall is implemented by adding firewall functionality to an existing device, such as a router.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 84

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
___________ translates an internal IP address or group of IP addresses into an outside, public IP address that is sent across the network.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 85

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following protocols support delay-sensitive delivery to support streaming media?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 86

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which type of security threat involves breaking into a computer to obtain confidential information?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 87

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
In what type of attack are multiple SYN packets sent to a server by an attacker, thereby tying up resources as the server attempts to complete the TCP three-way handshake?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 88

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
An attacker runs a ping sweep against a network. What type of attack is this?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 89

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
___________________ attacks are the disabling or corruption of networks, systems, or services.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 90

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
What “show” command can be issued on a Cisco router to view the configuration register value?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 91

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
How is “extended ping” entered on a Cisco router?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 92

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
VoIP uses voice-enabled routers that convert analog voice from traditional telephone signals into IP packets.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 93

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which type of physical threat involves physical damage to servers, routers, switches, cabling, and workstations?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 94

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
A DDoS attack differs from a regular DoS attack in that the victim is attacked in a coordinated manner from several compromised systems known as __________.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 95

 

 
 
 
What type of network vulnerability is involved with the lack of a disaster recovery plan?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 96

 

 
 
 
Which of the following is false regarding a firewall?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 97

 

 
 
 
Which feature of network security records what the user does, including what is accessed, the amount of time the resource is accessed, and any changes that were made?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 98

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which of the following firewall techniques prevents or allows access based on IP or MAC addresses?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 99

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
Which type of traffic should be given the highest priority on a network?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
·         Question 100

1 out of 1 points

 
 
 
___________________ attacks are the unauthorized discovery and mapping of systems, services, or vulnerabilities.
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

/64 prefixes are the most common global routing prefixes assigned today.
 
2.
According to the textbook, initial business data networks evolved to enable the transmission of many different types of information services except
3.
According to the textbook, switch devices and wireless access points cannot be separate dedicated devices within a network implementation.
4.
According to the textbook, the growth of media, and the new uses to which it is being put, is driving the need to integrate audio and video into many forms of communication.
5.
According to the textbook, the high bandwidth provided by a dialup modem connection is usually sufficient for large data transfer.
6.
According to the textbook, the longer a signal travels on a copper cable, the more it deteriorates in a phenomenon referred to as _____________________________.
7.
According to the textbook, the physical layer of the OSI model consists of electronic circuitry, media, and connectors developed by ___________________.
8.
According to the textbook, the protocols and operations of the upper OSI layers are performed in software designed by _________________________________.
9.
According to the textbook, whether connecting to a local printer in the home or to a website in another country, before any network communications can occur, a physical connection to a local network must be established first.
10.
According to the textbook, which of the following is not a function provided by a network for use in education?
11.
The address 127.0.0.1 is called the ____________ address and allows a host to send a packet to itself, which is useful for testing purposes.
12.
The address block for legacy Class A networks included the range
13.
The address block for legacy Class C networks include the range
14.
The address of an IPv4 broadcast address is always an odd number
15.
___________ allows end devices to have IP information automatically configured.
16.
A(n) _____________________________ can be used to test a fiber-optic cable segment.
17.
A(n) _________ can be used to test a fiber-optic cable segment.
18.
A(n) ___________________ is an attack to capture private information from an organization's network
19.
A(n) ______________________________ is a set of specialized ports on an internetworking device that connect to individual networks.
20.
A(n) _______________ secures outgoing traffic and restricts incoming traffic
21.
Application layer protocols are used by both the source and destination devices during a communication session.
22.
_____ are established rules or agreements to govern communication.
23.
________ are network addresses represented in dotted-decimal format, such as 10.10.10.10.
24.
An attacker runs a ping sweep against a network. What type of attack is this?
25.
__________ attacks are the disabling or corruption of networks, systems, or services
26.
Because routers are used to interconnect networks, the ports on a router are referred to as ________________________.
27.
Client and server software usually run on separate computers, but it is also possible for one computer to carry out both roles at the same time.
28.
______ clouds are built to meet the needs of a specific industry and can be public or private.
29.
The color coding for UTP cabling is:
30.
________________ communication relies on unidirectional data flow, where sending and receiving data are not performed at the same time.
31.
A computer with server software can provide services simultaneously to only one client.
32.
A __________________________ concentrates wireless signals from users and connects, usually through a copper cable, to the existing copper-based network infrastructure, such as Ethernet.
33.
A ___________________ connector is a widely adopted LAN and WAN connector that uses a push-pull mechanism to ensure positive insertion. It is used with both multimode and single-mode fiber.
34.
Data __________ means that only the intended and authorized recipients can access and read data.
35.
The destination address 255.255.255.255 is an example of a ________________ broadcast in the 192.168.10.0/24 network.
36.
DHCP is generally the preferred method of assigning IP addresses to hosts on large networks because it reduces the burden on network support staff and virtually eliminates entry errors.
37.
End devices interconnect intermediary devices
38.
Ethernet and wireless networks use ________.
39.
Fault tolerant networks depend on multiple paths between the source and destination of a message. If one path fails, the messages can be instantly sent over a different link.
40.
A host can send a packet to
41.
IEEE rates UTP cabling according to its performance, thereby placing cables into categories according to their ability to carry higher-bandwidth rates. Of the following categories, which one is the recommended type for data networking in new building installations?
 

42.
IEEE rates UTP cabling according to its performance, thereby placing cables into categories according to their ability to carry higher-bandwidth rates. Of the following categories, which one is the recommended type for data networking in new building installations?
43.
If no device responds to an ARP request, the packet is dropped because a frame cannot be created.
44.
In a __________________________ cable, one end is 568A and the other end is 568B.
45.
In a DSL connection, which of the following is not a use of one of the three channels?
46.
In ___________________ buffering, frames are stored in queues that are linked to specific incoming and outgoing ports.
47.
In ________________ communication, both devices can both transmit and receive on the media but cannot do so simultaneously.
48.
In IPv6, what is equivalent to the IPv4 loopback address?
49.
Intermediary devices require IP address, but end devices do not require IP addresses to communicate on the Internet.
50.
In the case of wireless media, messages are transmitted using electrical impulses without requiring any physical connecting media.
51.
In the textbook, which of the following is not listed among the most common external threats to networks?
52.
_____________ involves decreased priority, or blocking unwanted activity, like peer-to-peer file sharing or live entertainment.
53.
A _______________________ involves the consolidation of different kinds of networks onto one platform.
54.
The IOS file is several megabytes in size and is stored in a semi-permanent memory area called _________.
55.
IP is often referred to as an unreliable or best-effort delivery protocol, which means that IP works properly sometimes and does not function well at other times.
56.
IPv6 addresses are _______ bits in length and written as a string of hexadecimal values.
57.
A ______ is 4 bits.
58.
___________ is a physical port on a Layer 3 switch configured to act as a router port.
59.
____ is a protocol that governs the way that a web server and a web client interact.
 
60.
_____________ is a protocol used to deliver frames between two nodes.
 
61.
__________ is a representation of information using only 1s and 0s.
 
62.
____________ is the ability to determine whether a frame contains an error and the ability to repair the error from the information sent with the frame communication.
 
63.
_______ is the amount of time, including delays, for data to travel from one given point to another.
 
64.
___________ is the capacity of a medium to carry data.
 
65.
_____________ is the CSMA method that is used by 802.11 wireless networking technologies.
 
66.
The ___________ is the device that routes traffic from the local network to devices on remote networks.
 
67.
The _____________________________ is the lower sublayer of the data link layer that defines the media access processes performed by the hardware.
 
68.
_______ is the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time.
 
69.
__________ is the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time.
 
70.
___________ is the term used to refer to the PDU at the application layer of the TCP/IP model.
 
71.
_________ is the Wireless personal-area network (WPAN) standard, known as "Bluetooth," and uses a device pairing process to communicate over distances from 1 to 100 meters.
 
72.
___________ is throughput minus traffic overhead for establishing sessions, acknowledgements, and encapsulations
 
73.
A ____________________________ is used to translate IP addresses to web addresses.
 
74.
The _________________ layer controls how data is transmitted onto the physical media by encoding the binary digits that represent data into signals.
 
 

75.
The ____________________ layer must generate the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the "1" and "0" on the media.
 
76.
The ________ layer produced the representation and grouping of bits as voltages, radio frequencies, or light pulses
 
77.
The ________________ layer provides the segmentation of data and the controls necessary to reassemble these segments into the various communication streams.
 
78.
LLC is implemented in hardware, and its implementation is independent of the software.
 
79.
The local routing table of a host typically contains a route to the loopback interface (127.0.0.1). This address is known as a ______________________.
 
80.
The local routing table of a host typically contains a route to the loopback interface (127.0.0.1). This address is known as a ______________________.
 
81.
____________________ means having the assurance of timely and reliable access to data services for authorized users.
 
82.
The media access method used by the data link protocol is determined by the logical point-to-point topology, not the physical topology.
 
83.
Network bandwidth is measured in the number of _____ per _______ that can be transmitted.
 
84.
No single solution can protect the network from the variety of threats that exist
 
85.
________occurs in fiber-optic media when the media do not completely touch at the splice or connection.
 
86.
______________ occurs when the fiber-optic media are not precisely aligned to one another when joined.
 
87.
On a Cisco router, what command is used to display the ARP table?
 
88.
On a Windows computer, what command can be used to identify the MAC address of an Ethernet adapter?
 
89.
One way to accomplish the required QoS by managing the delay and packet loss parameters on a network can be accomplished through ___________.
 
90.
Online distance learning has removed geographic barriers and improved student opportunity.
 
91.
On the receiving end, the _________________ layer receives signals across the connecting media, decodes the signal back into data, and passes the data to the ____________layer for acceptance and processing.
92.
The physical layer standards address which of the following functional areas?
93.
The portion of the OS that interfaces with the applications and user is known as the ________________.
94.
The process of interleaving many different conversations on a network is called _____________.
95.
A protocol that governs communication over a data link and the physical transmission of data on the network media is ________________.
96.
Regulating the amount of data a source transmits is a function of _____________.
97.
The ________________ represents the route that packets must take to reach all remote network addresses.
98.
A router's IOS is typically stored in flash memory and is copied into RAM for execution by the CPU during bootup.
99.
Routers will not forward packets with a link-local source or destination address.
100.
A routing table on a router stores information about both directly connected and remote routes. The route source field in the table identifies how the route was learned. Which code identifies that a route was learned dynamically from another router using the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP)?
101.
A routing table on a router stores information about both directly connected and remote routes. The route source field in the table identifies how the route was learned. Which code identifies that a route was learned dynamically from another router using the Open shortest Path First (OSPF) routing protocol?
102.
Satellite dishes require a clear line of sight to the satellite.
103.
The seven OSI model layers are more often referred to by number rather than by name. Which layer number is the session layer in the OSI model?
 
 
 
 
 

104.
The seven OSI model layers are more often referred to by number rather than by name. Which layer number is the transport layer in the OSI model?
 
105.
Shielded twisted-pair (STP) cabling provides better noise protection than UTP cabling
 
106.
The source address of any packet is always the unicast address of the originating host.
 
107.
The TCP/IP network access layer is the equivalent of the following OSI layers:
 
108.
TCP is considered _____________ because it uses acknowledged delivery.
 
109.
The TIA-598 standard recommends a(n) _______ jacket for single-mode fiber cables and a(n) ________ one for multimode fiber cables.
 
110.
To offer wireless capability, a network must incorporate a ____________ to which to connect devices.
 
111.
To prevent complete chaos on the media, nondeterministic contention-based methods use a carrier sense multiple access (CSMA) process for first detecting whether the media is carrying a signal.
 
112.
To provide Internet connectivity to cable customers, cable service providers are currently converting their systems to two-way systems and replacing portions of their coaxial cables with _______________.
 
113.
_______ translates an internal IP address or group of IP addresses into an outside, public IP address that is sent across the network.
 
114.
UDP is a reliable protocol, whereas TCP does not provide reliability.
 
115.
Unlike the bus topology, the ring does not need to be terminated.
 
116.
Using a HomePlug standard Powerline adapter, devices can connect to the LAN wherever there is an electrical outlet.
 
117.
Using an IPv4 network address of 192.168.1.0/26, what is the last usable host address in the second subnet (i.e. subnet [1])?
 
118.
Using an IPv4 network address of 192.168.2.0/26, what is the subnet mask?
 
119.
Using an IPv4 network address of 192.168.2.0/26, what is the subnetwork address in the second subnet (i.e. subnet[1])?
 
120.
UTP cable consists of _______ pairs of color-coded wires that have been twisted together and then encased in a flexible plastic sheath that protects them from minor physical damage.
 
121.
VoIP uses voice-enabled routers that convert analog voice from traditional telephone signals into IP packets.
 
122.
What command is used to prevent passwords from being displayed as plain text when viewing the configuration files?
 
123.
What command is used to verify the condition of switch interfaces?
 
124.
What command(s) is (are) used to replace the running configuration with the startup configuration, discard all configuration changes made during the session, and restart the device?
 
125.
What does UDP do when receiving messages that are more than one datagram in length?
 
126.
What error message is displayed in the IOS if not all the required keywords or arguments were entered?
 
127.
What feature is used on a switch to automatically detect the required cable type for copper Ethernet connections and configure the interfaces accordingly?
 
128.
What happens if the CSMA process fails and two devices transmit at the same time, creating a data collision?
 
129.
What is a fault-tolerant network?
 
130.
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 248?
 
131.
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number AA?
 
 

132.
What is the correct order of processes that occur as data travels from a source node to a destination node
I. The physical layer encodes the frames and creates the electrical, optical, or radio wave signals that represent the bits in each frame.
II. The user data is segmented by the transport layer, and further encapsulated as frames by the data link layer
III. The signals are sent on the media one at a time
 
133.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 00000011?
 
134.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 01000000?
 
135.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11000111?
 
136.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number F1?
 
137.
What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS?
 
138.
What is the first troubleshooting action that should be taken if connectivity between networking devices is not achieved?
 
139.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 10000000?
 
140.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 11111110?
 
141.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 119?
 
142.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 255?
 
143.
What is the IPv4 address for the first usable host in the network 192.168.2.0/24?
 
144.
What is the IPv6 DHCP message that corresponds to the IPv4 DHCPOFFER message?
 
145.
What is the IPv6 equivalent of the local default route?
 
146.
What is the network address for the host assigned to 172.16.4.35/24 ?
 
147.
What is the order of steps recommended to mitigate a worm attack?
 
148.
What is the purpose of the Session layer in the OSI model?
 
149.
What is true of Tier 3 ISPs?
150.
What key is used to return to the EXEC prompt at the -More—prompt?
151.
What occurs when another wireless device connects to a wireless access point (WAP)?
152.
What range of ports can either be used by TCP to identify the requested service on the destination device or as a client source port?
153.
What type of encoding has two states termed "zero" and "one" and no neutral or rest position. That is, a 0 might be represented by one voltage level, and a 1 might be represented by a different voltage.
154.
What type of physical topology involved all end systems chained to each other and terminated in some form on each end?
155.
What utility is used to identify the network path between hosts?
156.
When a device is powered on, the IOS is copied from flash into ___________________.
157.
When using the controlled access method, network devices take turns, in sequence, to access the medium. If an end device does not need to access the medium, the opportunity passes to the next end device.
158.
Which address is used as a destination address on a broadcast Ethernet frame?
159.
Which class of IP address provides a maximum of only 254 host addresses per network ID?
160.
Which field in an IPv4 header is used for error checking of the IP header?
161.
Which layer of the OSI model has protocols that describe the mechanical, electrical, functional, and procedural means to activate, maintain, and deactivate physical connections for bit transmissions to and from a network device?
162.
Which layer of the TCP/IP model controls the hardware devices and media that make up the network?
 

163.
Which of the following addresses are represented as ::1/128 (or just ::1 in compressed format)?
 
164.
Which of the following are functions of the Presentation Layer in the OSI model?
 
165.
Which of the following are reasons that circuit-switched technology was not optimal for the Internet?
I. Circuit-switched processes use IP addresses.
II. Circuit-switched processes allowed the use of dynamic redundant paths without intervention by the user.
III. The cost to create many alternate paths with enough capacity to support a large number of simultaneous circuits was too high.
IV. The technologies necessary to dynamically re-create dropped circuits in the event of a failure were inadequate.
 
166.
Which of the following are steps that should be taken to secure devices on which a new operating system has been installed?
 
167.
Which of the following fields indicates the number of segments that can be accepted at one time?
 
168.
Which of the following firewall techniques prevents or allows access based on IP or MAC addresses?
 
169.
Which of the following firewall techniques prevents or allows access by specific application types based on port numbers?
 
170.
Which of the following IPv4 addresses would be used in a private network?
 
171.
Which of the following is a characteristic of contention-based MAC?
 
172.
Which of the following is an OSI model layer within the TCP/IP model's Network Access layer?
 
173.
Which of the following is false with respect to the Internet?
 
174.
Which of the following is not a category of migration techniques intended to facilitate the change from IPv4 to IPv6?
 
175.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Cat6 cable?
 
176.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of contention-based access?
 
177.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of controlled access as listed in the textbook?
 
178.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of controlled access as listed in the textbook?
 
179.
Which of the following is not a common type of fiber-optic termination and splicing error?
 
180.
Which of the following is not a major phase to a router's bootup process?
 
181.
Which of the following is not an advantage of the IPv6 simplified header over the IPv4 header?
 
182.
Which of the following is not an example of an extranet?
 
183.
Which of the following is not a primary consideration when planning address allocation?
 
184.
Which of the following is not a primary responsibility of a transport layer protocol?
 
185.
Which of the following is not a security measure that should be taken in a network?
 
186.
Which of the following is not a type of UTP cable?
 
187.
Which of the following is not one of the three basic operations of reliability in data transmission?
 
188.
Which of the following is not one of the ways the textbook describes how we communicate using networks?
 
 

189.
Which of the following is used to counter the negative effects of EMI and RFI?
 
190.
Which of the following organizations define open standards and protocols that apply to the data link layer?
 
191.
Which of the following protocols is not part of the Internet protocol suite TCP/IP?
 
192.
Which of the following standards governs fiber-optic color coding?
 
193.
Which of the following type of networks is often set up by individuals who work from a home or remote office and need to connect to a corporate network or other centralized resource?
 
194.
Which option contained in a Router Advertisement (RA) message indicates that the device should use the prefix, prefix length, and default gateway address information contained in the RA message. No other information is available from a DHCPv6 server.
 
195.
Which part of an IPv4 packet contains the Layer 4 segment information and the actual data?
 
196.
Which protocol enables clients to retrieve email from a mail server and downloads email from the mail server to the desktop?
 
197.
Which protocol is a simple, connectionless file transfer protocol that provides a best-effort, unacknowledged delivery?
 
198.
Which standards organization published the OSI reference model to develop a layered framework for networking protocols?
 
199.
Which type of physical threat involves electrostatic discharge, lack of critical spare parts, poor cabling, and poor labeling?
 
200.
Which Wi-Fi standard uses a tri-band Wi-Fi solution using 2.4 GHz, 5 GHz, and 60 GHz and offers theoretical speeds of up to 7 Gbps?
 
201.
With ______________ assignment, the network administrator must manually configure the network information for a host.
 
202.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that the subnet mask will be 255.255.255.252. How many subnets are possible in this design?
 
203.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that the subnet mask will be 255.255.255.252. What is the last usable host address of the first subnet (i.e. subnet[0])?
 
204.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that you need at least 6 subnets. What will be the subnet mask in the new design?
 
205.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that you need at least 6 subnets. What will be the subnet mask in the new design?
 
206.
You have been assigned an IP address for your network of 192.168.1.0 / 24. Each subnet needs to accommodate 12 hosts. How many bits do you need to borrow to create your subnets?
 
207.
You have been assigned an IP address for your network of 192.168.1.0/24. Each subnet needs to accommodate 12 hosts. What is the subnet mask?
 
 
 

 

1.
According to the textbook, data link layer protocols are generally defined by Requests for Comments (RFC).
 
2.
According to the textbook, fiber-optic cables provide the greatest mobility options of all media.
 
3.
According to the textbook, initial business data networks evolved to enable the transmission of many different types of information services except
 
4.
According to the textbook, throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth in physical layer implementations.
 
5.
According to the textbook, which of the following are fundamental building blocks of education?
 
6.
According to your textbook, during the queuing process, if the number of packets to be queued continues to increase, what happens?
 
7.
A(n) ___________________ is a confirmation that a message has been received.
 
8.
A(n) ____________________ is an attack designed to slow or crash applications and processes on a network device.
 
9.
Coaxial cable was traditionally used in cable television and was capable of transmitting in two directions.
 
10.
The erase command can be used to erase any file in an IOS device.
 
11.
Ethernet and wireless networks use ____________________________
 
12.
From which mode are CLI configurations made that affect the operation of the device as a whole?
 
13.
____________________________ give(s) people the opportunity to work together on shared documents.
 
14.
___________________________ has not been embraced by everyone because many people are concerned about violating the laws of copyrighted materials.
 
15.
The IEEE 802.11 standard is a contention-based system that uses a CSMA/CA media access process.
 
16.
If a node receives a frame and the calculated CRC does not match the CRC in the FCS, what action will the node take?
17.
In a __________________________ cable, one end is 568A and the other end is 568B.
18.
In ________________ communication, both devices can both transmit and receive on the media but cannot do so simultaneously.
19.
In ______ communication, data flow is bidirectional, so data can be sent and received at the same time.
20.
Indicate the appropriate order for the following ARP processes that occur when an entry is not found in a cached map of an ARP table.
(1) A map is created in the ARP table
(2) AN ARP request packet is sent out.
(3) Layer 2 processes notify ARP that it needs a map.
(4) If a device's destination IP address matches the IP address in the request, it responds with an ARP reply.
21.
The Internet has changed the manner in which social, commercial, political, and personal interactions occur.
22.
In the textbook, which of the following is not listed among the most common external threats to networks?
23.
In which mode must a technician be in to change the hostname for a device?
24.
IOS commands are case sensitive.
25.
A ________________ is a calculated number, which is used for error checking, is based on a frame's data, and is placed in the Frame Check Sequence field of a frame.
26.
______________________ is a method of converting a stream of data bits into a predefined code for data transmission.
27.
A _________ is a network infrastructure designed to support the servers and provide data storage, retrieval, and replication.
28.
___________________________ is a technique in which an analog signal, such as a voice, is converted into a digital signal by sampling the signal's amplitude and expressing the different amplitudes as a binary number.
29.
_________________________ is a WAN version of the star topology in which a central site interconnects branch sites using point-to-point links.
 
30.
Is the binary number 11111111 odd or even?
 
31.
_____________________________ is the capacity of a medium to carry data.
 
32.
______ is the IP address of the sending device.
 
33.
The ________ is the world's largest developer of international standards for a wide variety of products and services.
 
34.
___________________________ is throughput minus traffic overhead for establishing sessions, acknowledgements, and encapsulation.
 
35.
A ______________________ is used to facilitate access to a medium when the controlled access method is used.
 
36.
Layer 2 LAN switches perform switching and filtering based only on the OSI data link layer MAC addresses and depend upon routers to pass data between independent IP subnetworks, whereas Layer 3 switches can use IP addresses to perform routing functions.
 
37.
The _______ layer accepts a complete frame from the data link layer and encodes it as a series of signals that are transmitted onto the local media.
 
38.
The _________________ layer controls how data is transmitted onto the physical media by encoding the binary digits that represent data into signals.
 
39.
_________________ lines allow access to a Cisco device through Telnet.
 
40.
MAC addresses are displayed as ___________________ numbers.
 
41.
The media access method used by the data link protocol is determined by the logical point-to-point topology, not the physical topology.
 
42.
Messages sent across the network are first converted into ___________ by the sending host signals into a pattern of sounds, light waves, or electrical impulses.
 
43.
The _______________________ mode is the first mode encountered upon entrance into the CLI of an IOS device.
 
44.
The multicast MAC address is a special value that begins with ___________________ in hexadecimal.
 
 

45.
Multiple devices can have the same MAC address.
 
46.
On a Windows computer, what command can be used to identify the MAC address of an Ethernet adapter?
 
47.
Online learning opportunities can decrease time-consuming and costly travel yet still ensure that all employees are adequately trained to perform their jobs in a safe and productive manner.
 
48.
The seven OSI model layers are more often referred to by number rather than by name. Which layer number is the data link layer in the OSI model?
 
49.
Shining a bright flashlight into one end of a fiber cable while observing the visible light at the other end of the fiber ensures the performance of the fiber.
 
50.
The three-byte (24-bit) code that is assigned to a vendor that makes up the first three bytes of a MAC address is called the ___________________________.
 
51.
To access context sensitive help, enter ______________ at any prompt.
 
52.
To further enhance the cancellation effect of paired circuit wires, designers vary the number of twists of each wire pair in a cable such that each colored pair is twisted a different number of times.
 
53.
The ____________________________ topology provides high availability, but requires that every end system be interconnected to every other system.
 
54.
To prevent complete chaos on the media, nondeterministic contention-based methods use a carrier sense multiple access (CSMA) process for first detecting whether the media is carrying a signal.
 
55.
Using classification to manage QoS, all data within the same classification is treated according to the same rules.
 
56.
What CLI shortcut completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword?
 
57.
What command is used on a Windows PC at the command prompt to display the computer's IP configuration setttings?
 
58.
What command is used to require authentication upon login after a password is set?
 
59.
What command is used to verify the condition of switch interfaces?
 
60.
What command will display a list of keywords available for viewing the status of an IOS switch?
 
61.
What happens when an Ethernet frame is less than 64 bytes in length?
 
62.
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 192?
 
63.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 00000011?
 
64.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10000000?
 
65.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10101010?
 
66.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number F1?
 
67.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number FE?
 
68.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 192?
 
69.
What is the name given to the Ethernet MAC sublayer PDU?
 
70.
What is true of Tier 3 ISPs
 
71.
What type of physical topology involves end devices that are connected to a central intermediate device?
 
72.
What type of physical topology involves end systems connected to their respective neighbor, forming a circle?
 
73.
What type of switch is one that you cannot add features or options to beyond those that originally came with the switch?
 
74.
Where is the configuration used during startup on Cisco IOS devices located?
 
75.
Which address is a multicast MAC address?
 
76.
Which command displays information about the currently loaded IOS version, along with hardware and device information?
 
77.
Which layers in the OSI model correspond to the Application layer in the TCP/IP model?
 
78.
Which of the following are ways in which signals can be transmitted?
 
 

79.
Which of the following Ethernet changes occurred in the year 2002?
 
80.
Which of the following is a type of Layer 3 switch interface?
 
81.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a peer-to-peer network?
 
82.
Which of the following is not among the common patch cords for interconnecting infrastructure devices as listed in the textbook?
 
83.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Ethernet MAC sublayer?
 
84.
Which of the following organizations define open standards and protocols that apply to the data link layer?
 
85.
Which of the following statements is(are) true?
I. Layer 2 protocols specify the encapsulation of a packet into a frame and the techniques for getting the encapsulated packet on and off each medium.
II. The technique used for getting the frame on and off media is called the Logical Link Control method.
 
86.
Which of the following type of networks is used in businesses and large organizations to allow employees to provide consolidation, storage, and access to information on network servers?
 
87.
Which password limits device access over SSH or Telnet?
 
88.
Which standard describes the wire color codes to pin assignments (pinouts) for Ethernet cables?
 
89.
Which type of model provides consistency within all types of network protocols and services by describing what has to be done at a particular layer, but not prescribing how it should be accomplished?
 
90.
Which type of network involves high-end servers, multiple disk arrays, and Fiber Channel interconnection technology?
 
 

1.
According to the textbook, fiber-optic cables provide the greatest mobility options of all media.
 
2.
According to the textbook, initial business data networks evolved to enable the transmission of many different types of information services except
 
3.
According to the textbook, throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth in physical layer implementations.
 
4.
According to the textbook, to be considered a data center, the infrastructure can occupy only one floor of a building.
 
5.
According to the textbook, which of the following are fundamental building blocks of education?
 
6.
According to your textbook, during the queuing process, if the number of packets to be queued continues to increase, what happens?
 
7.
The address block for legacy Class A networks included the range
 
8.
After header information is added to a PDU by the network layer, the PDU is called a ______________.
 
9.
A(n) ____________ forwards data packets to and receives data packets from the Internet
 
10.
A(n) __________________ is a 48-bit data-link address that is physically embedded on the Ethernet NIC of an end device.
 
11.
A(n) ___________________ is a confirmation that a message has been received.
 
12.
A(n) ____________________ is an attack designed to slow or crash applications and processes on a network device.
 
13.
Any network resource, such as a server or a printer, should always have a dynamic IP address.
 
14.
At the transport layer, each particular set of data flowing between a source application and a destination application is known as a ________________.
 
15.
The automatic assignment of IP addresses, subnet masks, gateways, and other IP networking parameters is called _________________ addressing.
16.
Beginning with Windows Vista, Windows uses a randomly generated interface ID instead of one created with EUI-64 in generating IPv6 interface IDs.
17.
Bits are encoded on fiber as ______________
18.
Both the Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 standards define the minimum frame size as __________ bytes and the maximum as __________ bytes.
19.
The broadcast address uses the _____________ address in the network range.
20.
A client is downloading a large file from a server using FTP. One of the segments is lost during transit. What will happen?
21.
__________ clouds are built to meet the needs of a specific industry and can be public or private.
22.
Coaxial cable was traditionally used in cable television and was capable of transmitting in two directions.
23.
The combination of the source and destination IP addresses and the source and destination port numbers is known as a _______________.
24.
The default route is only used when a host must forward packets to a remote network.
25.
The default subnet mask for a Class B address is _____________.
26.
DHCP can pose a security risk because any device connected to the network can receive an address.
27.
DHCP enables clients on a network to do which of the following?
28.
Each route a packet takes to reach the destination host is called a ___________.
29.
__________ enables the automatic assignment of addressing information such as IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and other configuration information.
30.
The erase command can be used to erase any file in an IOS device.
 
31.
Every IPv6 enabled device is required to have a link-local address.
 
32.
From which mode are CLI configurations made that affect the operation of the device as a whole?
 
33.
____________________________ give(s) people the opportunity to work together on shared documents.
 
34.
___________________________ has not been embraced by everyone because many people are concerned about violating the laws of copyrighted materials.
 
35.
How can a device obtain an IPv6 global unicast address automatically?
 
36.
How many subnets can be created if 4 bits are borrowed to specify subnets?
 
37.
How many subnetworks can you have with a /18 prefix?
 
38.
How many subnetworks can you have with a /20 prefix?
 
39.
How many valid host addresses are created when 4 host bits are borrowed from the 10.20.20.0/24 network?
 
40.
In a ___________________ cable, one end is 568A and the other end is 568B.
 
41.
In a ____________ cable, one end is 568A and the other end is 568B.
 
42.
In ______ communication, data flow is bidirectional, so data can be sent and received at the same time.
 
43.
Indicate the appropriate order for the following ARP processes that occur when an entry is not found in a cached map of an ARP table.
(1) A map is created in the ARP table
(2) AN ARP request packet is sent out.
(3) Layer 2 processes notify ARP that it needs a map.
(4) If a device's destination IP address matches the IP address in the request, it responds with an ARP reply.
 
44.
In full-duplex communication, frames sent by the two connected end nodes cannot collide because the end nodes use two separate circuits in the network cable.
 
 

45.
In modern networks, end devices can act as a client, a server, or both. The software installed on the computer determines which role the computer plays.
 
46.
In subnetting, for each bit borrowed from the host portion of a network address, the number of subnetworks available ______________________.
 
47.
In ________________ switching, when the switch receives the frame, it stores the data in buffers until the complete frame has been received.
 
48.
The Internet has changed the manner in which social, commercial, political, and personal interactions occur.
 
49.
In the textbook, which of the following is not listed among the most common external threats to networks?
 
50.
In which mode must a technician be in to change the hostname for a device?
 
51.
IOS commands are case sensitive.
 
52.
______________________ is a method of converting a stream of data bits into a predefined code for data transmission.
 
53.
A _________ is a network infrastructure designed to support the servers and provide data storage, retrieval, and replication.
 
54.
A ____________________ is a network infrastructure that provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area.
 
55.
___________________________ is a technique in which an analog signal, such as a voice, is converted into a digital signal by sampling the signal's amplitude and expressing the different amplitudes as a binary number.
 
56.
A ____________________ is necessary for devices on different networks to communicate.
 
57.
Is the binary number 11111111 odd or even?
 
58.
_______________________is the capacity of a medium to carry data.
 
59.
____________________ is the dominant LAN technology and represents a family of networking technologies that are defined in the IEEE 802.2 and 802.3 standards.
 
60.
______ is the IP address of the sending device.
 
61.
The ________ is the world's largest developer of international standards for a wide variety of products and services.
 
62.
___________________________ is throughput minus traffic overhead for establishing sessions, acknowledgements, and encapsulation.
 
63.
Layer 2 LAN switches perform switching and filtering based only on the OSI data link layer MAC addresses and depend upon routers to pass data between independent IP subnetworks, whereas Layer 3 switches can use IP addresses to perform routing functions.
 
64.
The _______ layer accepts a complete frame from the data link layer and encodes it as a series of signals that are transmitted onto the local media.
 
65.
The _________________ layer controls how data is transmitted onto the physical media by encoding the binary digits that represent data into signals.
 
66.
The legacy Class C address block was designed to support small networks with a maximum of 254 host addresses and used a ___________ prefix.
 
67.
__________________ lines allow access to a Cisco device through Telnet.
 
68.
MAC addresses are displayed as ___________________ numbers.
 
69.
Messages sent across the network are first converted into ___________ by the sending host signals into a pattern of sounds, light waves, or electrical impulses.
 
70.
The _______________________ mode is the first mode encountered upon entrance into the CLI of an IOS device.
 
71.
The multicast MAC address is a special value that begins with ___________________ in hexadecimal.
 
72.
Multiple devices can have the same MAC address.
 
73.
A network administrator is building a network for a small business that has 22 hosts. Which private IP address block should the network administrator use to address the network?
 
 

74.
On a Windows computer, what command can be used to identify the MAC address of an Ethernet adapter?
 
75.
One of the most common ways that a source device determines the IP address of a destination device is through the ______________________, in which an IP address is associated to a domain name.
 
76.
Online learning opportunities can decrease time-consuming and costly travel yet still ensure that all employees are adequately trained to perform their jobs in a safe and productive manner.
 
77.
Quiz 11
 
78.
Regional Internet Registries are responsible for allocation IP addresses to Internet service providers.
 
79.
The __________ represents the starting value for the bytes for a session that are transmitted to the receiving application. As data are transmitted during the session, this number is incremented by the number of bytes that have been transmitted.
 
80.
The seven OSI model layers are more often referred to by number rather than by name. Which layer number is the data link layer in the OSI model?
 
81.
Shining a bright flashlight into one end of a fiber cable while observing the visible light at the other end of the fiber ensures the performance of the fiber.
 
82.
The _________________ suite is a suite of protocols required for transmitting and receiving information using the Internet.
 
83.
TCP is a full-duplex protocol, where each connection represents two one-way communication streams or sessions.
 
84.
The three-byte (24-bit) code that is assigned to a vendor that makes up the first three bytes of a MAC address is called the ______________________
 
85.
To access context sensitive help, enter ______________ at any prompt.
 
86.
To end a one-way TCP session, a two-way handshake is used, consisting of a(n) _________ segment and a(n) ______________ segment.
 
87.
To further enhance the cancellation effect of paired circuit wires, designers vary the number of twists of each wire pair in a cable such that each colored pair is twisted a different number of times.
 
88.
To identify a target application in a data stream, the transport layer assigns each application an identifier known as a(n) ___________________.
 
89.
Unlike multitasking, which involves running several programs on the same OS, __________________ runs several different OSs in parallel on a single CPU.
 
90.
_________________ uses LED emitters to send light pulses and is popular in LANs, providing bandwidth up to 10 Gbps over link lengths of up to 550 meters.
 
91.
Using an IPv4 network address of 192.168.2.0/26, what is the last usable host address in the first subnet (i.e. subnet[0])?
 
92.
Using classification to manage QoS, all data within the same classification is treated according to the same rules.
 
93.
What CLI shortcut completes the remainder of a partially typed command or keyword?
 
94.
What command is used on a Cisco IOS router to display the routing table of the router?
 
95.
What command is used on a Windows PC at the command prompt to display the computer's IP configuration setttings?
 
96.
What command is used to require authentication upon login after a password is set?
 
97.
What command is used to verify the condition of switch interfaces?
 
98.
What command(s) is(are) used to take a device from privileged EXEC mode to the global configuration mode?
 
99.
What command will display a list of keywords available for viewing the status of an IOS switch?
 
100.
What does UDP do when receiving messages that are more than one datagram in length?
 
 

101.
What happens when an Ethernet frame is less than 64 bytes in length?
 
102.
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 8?
 
103.
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 10?
 
104.
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 192?
 
105.
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number EB?
 
106.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 00000011?
 
107.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10000000?
 
108.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 10101010?
 
109.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11111111?
 
110.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number F1?
 
111.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number FE?
 
112.
What is the difference between HTTP and HTTPS?
 
113.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 11110000?
 
114.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 8?
 
115.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 32?
 
116.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 192?
 
117.
What is the IPv4 address for the first usable host in the network 192.168.2.0/24?
 
118.
What is the IPv6 DHCP message that corresponds to the IPv4 DHCPOFFER message?
 
119.
What is the name given to the Ethernet MAC sublayer PDU?
 
120.
What is true of Tier 3 ISPs?
 
121.
What range of ports can either be used by TCP to identify the requested service on the destination device or as a client source port?
122.
What subnet mask would be used with the hosts in the 128.107.176.0 /22 network?
123.
What symbol is used to replace any single, contiguous string of one or more 16-bit hextets consisting of all 0s?
124.
What TCP/IP layer supports the exchange of data between programs running on the source and destination hosts?
125.
What type of switch is one that you cannot add features or options to beyond those that originally came with the switch?
126.
When a packet arrives at a router interface, the router examines the packet header to determine the destination network. If the destination network matches two or more possible routes in the routing table, the packet is dropped.
127.
When a user interacts with the shell of the Cisco IOS by entering commands on the keyboard at a command prompt, he is using the ____________
128.
When Duplicate Address Detection (DAD) is used, a device will send a(n) ___ message with its own IPv6 address as the targeted IPv6 address. If another device on the network has this address, it will respond with a(n) ____ message. This message will notify the sender that the address is in use.
129.
When using the netstat -r command on a host, you see a route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0. What does this route represent?
130.
Where do routing tables on routers get their information on remote routes?
131.
Where is the configuration used during startup on Cisco IOS devices located?
132.
Which addresses are used to help transition from IPc4 to IPv6?
133.
Which address is a multicast MAC address?
134.
Which command displays information about the currently loaded IOS version, along with hardware and device information?
 

135.
Which devices on a network will hear an ARP request?
 
136.
Which DHCP message confirms to the client that the requested lease is finalized?
 
137.
Which DHCP message is sent out to identify any available DHCPv4 servers on a network?
 
138.
Which field in an Ethernet frame is used for error detection?
 
139.
Which IP address is NOT a network address?
 
140.
Which IPv4 block of addresses is reserved for teaching and learning purposes?
 
141.
Which layer of the TCP/IP model determines the best path through the network?
 
142.
Which layers in the OSI model correspond to the Application layer in the TCP/IP model?
 
143.
Which of the following are obsolete types of fiber-optic connectors?
 
144.
Which of the following are reserved circuits that connect geographically separated offices for private voice and/or data networking?
 
145.
Which of the following are ways in which signals can be transmitted?
 
146.
Which of the following Ethernet changes occurred in the year 2002?
 
147.
Which of the following fields indicates the number of segments that can be accepted at one time?
 
148.
Which of the following is a type of Layer 3 switch interface?
 
149.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a peer-to-peer network?
 
150.
Which of the following is not a column in an IPv6 Route Table?
 
151.
Which of the following is not a common transport layer protocol?
 
152.
Which of the following is not a field in the header of a TCP segment?
 
153.
Which of the following is not a function of data encapsulation in Ethernet?
154.
Which of the following is not among the common patch cords for interconnecting infrastructure devices as listed in the textbook?
155.
Which of the following is not an Application layer protocol?
156.
Which of the following is not an example of a proprietary protocol?
157.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Ethernet MAC sublayer?
158.
Which of the following is not included in a DHCPOFFER message?
159.
Which of the following is not one of the four basic characteristics that underlying architectures need to address in order to meet user expectations?
160.
Which of the following is not one of the three basic operations of reliability in data transmission?
161.
Which of the following is true with respect to DHCP?
162.
Which of the following message types is a client request for data?
163.
Which of the following needs are addressed in performing a network requirement study to plan subnets?
164.
Which of the following port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP?
165.
Which of the following statements is(are) true?
I. Layer 2 protocols specify the encapsulation of a packet into a frame and the techniques for getting the encapsulated packet on and off each medium.
II. The technique used for getting the frame on and off media is called the Logical Link Control method.
166.
Which of the following type of networks is used in businesses and large organizations to allow employees to provide consolidation, storage, and access to information on network servers?
167.
Which of the following types of ports use numbers 0 to 1023?
 

168.
Which option contained in a Router Advertisement (RA) message indicates that the device should use the prefix, prefix length, and default gateway address information contained in the RA message. No other information is available from a DHCPv6 server.
 
169.
Which part of a fiber optic cable consists of pure glass and is the part of the fiber where light is carried?
 
170.
Which password is encrypted and limits access to the privileged EXEC mode?
 
171.
Which password limits device access over SSH or Telnet?
 
172.
Which port(s) is(are) assigned to DHCP?
 
173.
Which port(s) is(are) assigned to DNS?
 
174.
Which protocol resolves Internet names to IP addresses?
 
175.
Which standard describes the wire color codes to pin assignments (pinouts) for Ethernet cables?
 
176.
Which standards organization is responsible for developing communication standards that include radio equipment, cellular towers, VoIP devices, and satellite communications?
 
177.
Which standards organization published the OSI reference model to develop a layered framework for networking protocols?
 
178.
Which type of model provides consistency within all types of network protocols and services by describing what has to be done at a particular layer, but not prescribing how it should be accomplished?
 
179.
Which type of network involves high-end servers, multiple disk arrays, and Fiber Channel interconnection technology?
 
180.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that the subnet mask will be 255.255.255.252. What is the first usable host address in the first subnet (i.e. subnet[0])?
 
181.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that you need at least 6 subnets. How many hosts per subnet will be possible in the new design?
 
182.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that you need at least 6 subnets. What will be the address of your first usable host in your first subnet (i.e. subnet[0])?
 
 

 

1.
1. What is a group of web pages that groups of individuals can edit and view together called?
A. Podcasting
B. Wiki
C. Weblog (blog)
D. Instant messaging
 
2.
2. Which of the following are disadvantages of peer-to-peer networking? (Choose two.)
A. Expensive to set up and maintain
B. No centralized administration
C. Complex configuration
D. Scalability
 
3.
3. Which devices would be considered end devices on a network? (Choose four.)
A. Switch
B. Printer
C. IP phone
D. Server
E. Tablet computer
F. Wireless access point
 
4.
4. What type of information would be found on a logical topology diagram?
A. Location of departmental printer
B. Length and type of all cable runs
C. IP addressing scheme
D. Location of departmental switch
 
5.
5. What is a network infrastructure that provides access to other networks over a wide geographic area?
A. LAN
B. WLAN
C. MAN
D. WAN
E. SAN
 
6.
6. Which of the following are business-class Internet connection technologies normally supplied by a service provider? (Choose two.)
A. Leased lines
B. Broadband cable
C. Metro Ethernet
D. Mobile services
E. Cellular
 
7.
7. Which technology would be best to provide a home user with a high-speed, always-on Internet connection?
A. Dialup
B. DSL
C. Satellite
D. Cellular
 
8.
8. What is a converged network?
A. A network that makes use of both fiber-optic and copper connections
B. A network where voice, video, and data move over the same infrastructure
C. A network that makes use of both wired and wireless technology
D. A network that makes use of both satellite and terrestrial connections to move data
 
9.
9. What is a fault-tolerant network?
A. A network that can provide priority treatment of voice and video traffic
B. A network that offers secure transactions
C. A network that can reroute traffic in case of device failure
D. A network that is incapable of failing
 
 

10.
10. What is true of Tier 3 ISPs?
A. They act as local providers of service directly to end users.
B. They connect directly to Tier 1 ISPs.
C. They interconnect with other Tier 1 ISPs.
D. They provide high-speed redundant services to other ISPs.
 
11.
11. Which type of traffic must receive the highest priority from QoS?
A. Web traffic
B. Email
C. VoIP
D. Order processing
 
12.
12. What are the primary requirements of information security? (Choose three.)
A. Confidentiality
B. Integrity
C. Availability
D. QoS
E. Scalability
 
13.
13. List four current network trends.
 
14.
14. Describe some common everyday uses of a modern-day network.
 
15.
15. In what ways has the network transformed the way we learn?
 
 

1.
For which three reasons was a packet-switched connectionless data communications technology used when developing the Internet? (Choose three.)
 
2.
Match each characteristic to its corresponding internet connectivity type.(not all options are used)
 
3.
A medium-sized business is researching available options for connecting to the Internet. The company is looking for a high speed option with dedicated, symmetric access. Which connection type should the company choose?
 
4.
Refer to the exhibit. Which set of devices contains only intermediary devices?
 
5.
What are the primary requirements of information security?(choose 3)
 
6.
What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)
 
7.
What are two functions of intermediary devices on a network? (Choose two.)
 
8.
What is a converged network?
9.
What is a fault-tolerant network
10.
What is a group of web pages that groups of individuals can edit and view together called?
11.
What is a network infrastructure that provides access to other networks of a wide geographic area?
12.
What is an ISP?
13.
What is true of Tier 3 ISPs?
14.
What two criteria are used to help select network media? (Choose two.
15.
What type of information would be found on a logical topology diagram?
16.
Which area of the network would a college IT staff most likely have to redesign as a direct result of many students bringing their own tablets and smartphones to school to access school resources?
17.
Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?
18.
Which devices would be considered end devices on a network?(choose four)
19.
Which of the following are business-class Internet connection technologies normally supplied by a service provider?(choose 2)
20.
Which of the following are disadvantages of peer-to-peer networking?(choose two)
 
21.
Which technology would be best to provide a home user with a high-speed, always on Internet connection?
 
22.
Which three network tools provide the minimum required security protection for home users? (Choose three.)
 
23.
Which two statements about the relationship between LANs and WANs are true? (Choose two.)
 
24.
Which type of traffic must receive the highest priority from QOS?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

 

1.
10 Base 5 uses a star physical topology.
 
2.
10) Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Which modes and interfaces can be protected with passwords? (3)
 
3.
11) What would you type at the router user prompt if you want to see what show subcommands are available?
 
4.
12) What does the "More" prompt at the bottom of a screen on a Cisco router user interface mean?
 
5.
13) When typing commands, as a shortcut, you can press this/these key(s), and the interface will finish the entry for you ______
 
6.
14) How do you log out of a Cisco router?
 
7.
15) Which of the following IOS Exec commands... recalls the previous command______
 
8.
All devices on a network may respond to an ARP request.
 
9.
All passwords are case sensitive
 
10.
Any device that can be the source or destination of an Ethernet frame must be assigned a MAC address. This includes... Pick 5
 
11.
An ARP request is sent out on the network as what type of data packet?
 
12.
As a best practice, network professionals should always use TELNET in place of SSH, whenever possible because TELNET support encryption
 
13.
As described by the OSI model, how does data move across a network?
 
14.
At the data link layer, the frame structure is nearly identical for all speeds of Ethernet.
 
15.
Because of the increase in speed, extra care must be taken, with Fast Ethernet because the bits being sent are getting shorter in duration and occurring more frequently.
 
16.
Broadcast communication
 
17.
A bus topology is used when there can be absolutely no break in communications.
18.
The _______ can be considered the driver software for the Network Interface Card (NIC).
19.
The ______ can be considered the driver software for the Network Interface Card (NIC).
20.
Changes to router and switch configurations take effect as soon as the command is entered. For this reason, it is very important that changes to live production devices are always carefully planned before being implemented.
21.
A connection using Telnet is called a Virtual Terminal (VTY) session, or connection
22.
The console port is a management port that is used to provide out-of-band access to a router.
23.
Daemons typically run in the background and are not under an end user's direct control
24.
The data link layer is concerned with physical (as opposed to network, or logical) addressing
25.
Data Link layer protocols add a trailer to the end of each frame which used to determine if the frame arrived without error. This process is called error correction
26.
The default gateway is the IP address of an interface on the router on the same network as the sending host
27.
Defined by the IEEE 802.3 standard___________
28.
The _______ describes the arrangement of the nodes and the connections between them
29.
________ Determines the data link layer address, or MAC address, for known IP addresses.
30.
__________ determines the IP address for a known MAC address
31.
Encapsulation is the process in which data is wrapped in a particular protocol header before it is sent across the network
32.
Encapsulation is the process of placing one message format into another message format
33.
Establishes a logical connection(session) between two nodes _______
34.
The Ethernet frame structure changes depending on its physical implementations.
35.
The Ethernet _________ sublayer is responsible for Data Encapsulation
36.
The Ethernet _______ sub layer is responsible for Data Encapsulation
37.
Examples of non-deterministic (controlled) protocols include Token Ring and FDDI
 
38.
Fast Ethernet is one hundred times faster than 10 BASE-T
 
39.
Fast Ethernet is one hundred times faster than 10BASE-T
 
40.
Fast-forward and fragment-free are two forms of store-and-forward switching
 
41.
The first six hexadecimal digits of a MAC address, which are administered by the IEEE, identify the maker of the NIC card.
 
42.
The first six hexadecimal digits of a MAC address, which are administered by the IEEE, identify the maker of the NIC card
 
43.
For hosts to reach remote networks, they must send traffic to a local switch that can route the traffic to the correct destination network. This local switch is known as the default gateway and hosts must be configured with this address in order to communicate with devices on remote networks.
 
44.
For secure communication across the Internet, the HTTP protocol is used for accessing or posting web server information
 
45.
Fragment-free packet switching reads the first 64 bytes, which includes the frame header, and starts to send out the packet before the entire data field and checksum are read.
 
46.
Fragment free switching is required for Quality of Service (QoS) analysis on converged networks where frame classification for traffic prioritization is necessary
 
47.
A Frame's FCS is usually located in the Frame's Header
 
48.
Full-duplex Ethernet allows the transmission of a packet and the reception of a different packet at the same time
 
49.
Host A transmits to another host, Host B. The communication is such that Host A stops sending information content packets and then Host B begins sending packets. Similarly, Host B stops when Host A starts transmitting again. Classify the transmission type as_________
 
50.
How does Ethernet differ from Token Ring?
 
 

51.
How do switches learn the addresses of devices that are attached to their ports?
 
52.
How do you switch from user to privileged mode on Cisco routers?
 
53.
How many bits is a MAC address? [___]
 
54.
How many bits is a MAC address?
 
55.
How many collision domains would be created by a 16-port LAN switch?
 
56.
How many HEX digits is a MAC address? [____]
 
57.
HTTP is the language used to create a web page
 
58.
A hub is an OSI layer________device
 
59.
IEEE standards involve the three lowest layers of the OSI model's seven layers
 
60.
If a device detects errors, upon receiving a frame, the data packet is discarded. The destination device will not notify the source device regardless of whether the packet arrived successfully or not.
 
61.
If both an enable password and an enable secret password are set on a router, the enable secret password will override the enable password.
 
62.
If the displayed changes to a configuration are what you intended, what command should you use to save the changes to NVRAM?
 
63.
In a client/server network, the client runs a service, or process, sometimes called a server daemon
 
64.
In Cisco IOS software, whenever a "--More--" prompt appears, you can display JUST THE NEXT LINE, by pressing the Return key (or, on some keyboards, the Enter key)
 
65.
In order to configure a router via the ______ method you need network functionality to be accessible?
 
66.
In order to test end-to-end connectivity, you would use the ________ command.
 
67.
In the CSMA/CD access method, networking devices with data to transmit over the networking media work in a listen-before-transmit mode
 
68.
In ______, the device examines the media for the presence of a data signal. If the media is free, the device sends a notification across the media of its intent to use it.
69.
In_______, the device monitors the media for the presence of a data signal. If a data signal is absent, indicating that the media is free, the device transmits the data.
70.
IP addresses can be assigned to both physical ports and virtual interfaces on devices.
71.
An IP address is necessary for a switch to perform its operations
72.
_______ Is a request/response protocol: A client application layer application, typically a web browser, sends a request message to the server. The server responds with the appropriate message
73.
_____ is a typical client/server protocol with the server listening for client connections and the client initiating the connection to the server. The server can then transfer the e-mail.
74.
________ is essential for asymmetric switching, where frames are being exchanged between different rate ports
75.
_______is implemented in software ,and its implementation is independent of the physical equipment.
76.
_______ is implemented in software, and its implementation is independent of the physical equipment.
77.
_______is the recommended method for remote management because it provides a secure connection. It provides encrypted password authentication and transport of session data. This keeps the user ID, password, and the details of the management session private.
78.
_____ is used by the World Wide Web (WWW) to transfer data from web servers to web clients
79.
It is difficult to enforce security and access policies in _____ networks containing more than just a few computers
80.
It is possible for duplicate MAC addresses to exist due to mistakes during manufacturing or in some virtual machine implementation methods.
81.
LANs are high-speed, low-error data networks that cover a relatively small geographic area (up to a few thousand meters).
82.
LANs connect WANs together
 

83.
A Layer 2 switch is used to switch incoming frames from a 1000BASE-T port to a port connected to a 100BASE-T network. Which method of memory buffering would work best for this task?
 
84.
Layer 2 uses framing to organize or group the bits
 
85.
The ________ layer handles the exchange of information to initiate dialogs, keep them active, and to restart sessions that are disrupted or idle for a long period of time.
 
86.
The _____ layer identifies the Network layer protocol
 
87.
The _______ layer identifies the Network layer protocol
 
88.
The ______ Layer is the top layer of both the OSI and TCP/IP models.
 
89.
Logical Address
 
90.
The logical topology of a network is the actual layout of the wire or media.
 
91.
MAC addresses are 64 bits in length and are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits
 
92.
MAC addresses are assigned to workstations, servers, printers, switches, and routers - any device that must originate and/or receive data on the network.
 
93.
Match the IEEE standard with the technology... Bluetooth
 
94.
Match the IEEE standard with the technology... Ethernet
 
95.
Match the IEEE standard with the technology... Logical Link Control
 
96.
Match the IEEE standard with the technology... Token-Ring
 
97.
Match the IEEE standard with the technology... Wireless
 
98.
The Media Access Control (MAC) sub-layer transitions up to the network layer
 
99.
A mesh topology uses a single backbone segment (length of cable) that all hosts connect to directly
 
100.
The minimum Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 frame size is * bytes
 
101.
_______ Mode is used to configure a switch or router's Hostname.
 
102.
_______ Mode is used to configure a switch port or router network interface
 
103.
_______ Mode is used to configure console, SSH, Telnet, or AUX access
 
104.
The most widely-used networking models are OSI and HTTP
 
105.
Multicast
 
106.
Neither a CLI session through the console port or through the AUX port using a Modem require that the router have any IP services configured
 
107.
Network protocols are required to exchange information between source and destination devices in both local and remote networks
 
108.
_________ Networks decentralize the resources on a network
 
109.
________Networks usually use centralized user accounts, permissions, or monitors
 
110.
Often found on WANs ________
 
111.
On an Ethernet network, as data propagates along the network media, the NIC in each device on the network checks to see if its MAC address matches the physical destination address carried by the data frame.
 
112.
On an Ethernet network only the station with the matching DESTINATION mac address will see the frame sent to it
 
113.
On an Ethernet network, when the data reaches its destination station, the NIC for that station removes the frame from the wire, thus ensuring no other stations will see it.
 
114.
One major difference between 100-Mbps and 10-Mbps Ethernet is bit timing, with the Fast Ethernet bit time occurring in one-tenth of the time of 10 Mbps bit time.
 
115.
Only devices whose frames collided will invoke an algorithm to calculate how long they should refrain from transmitting
 
116.
Only the devices whose frames collided will invoke an algorithm to calculate how long they should refrain from transmitting
 
 

117.
Operating systems function with a shell, a kernel, and the hardware. The _____ interfaces with the users, allowing them to request specific tasks from the device.
 
118.
The OSI model defines four categories of functions that must occur for communications to be successful
 
119.
Packets are encapsulated in frames at which layer of the OSI model?
 
120.
A peer-to-peer application (P2P), unlike a peer-to-peer network, allows a device to act as both a client and a server within the same communication
 
121.
Peer-to-Peer applications can be used on peer-to-peer networks, client/server networks, and across the Internet
 
122.
Physical Address
 
123.
The physical layer handles error notification, network topology, and flow control
 
124.
The physical layer handles error notification, network topology, and flow control.
 
125.
The pinout for a 100BASE-TX connection is identical to the 10BASE-T pinout configuration.
 
126.
The pinout for a100BASE-TX connection is identical to the 10BASE-T pinout configuration.
 
127.
The Preamble and FCS fields are used for synchronization between the sending and receiving devices
 
128.
The Preamble and Start Frame Delimiter fields are NOT included when describing the size of a frame for error detection purposes.
 
129.
The Preamble field is always included when describing the size of a frame.
 
130.
Provides unacknowledged connectionless service over a shared medium
 
131.
_________ Provides users with an automated service that matches or resolves resource names and email domains with the required numeric device network address.
 
132.
Put the PDUs in order. From the User down
 
133.
A ring topology connects one host to the next and the last host to the first.
 
134.
The session layer determines how graphic images, sound and movies are presented
 
135.
The session layer uses dialogue separation to orderly initiate, terminate, and manage communication
 
136.
Since the MAC address is located on the NIC, if the NIC were replaced in a computer, the physical address of the station would change to that of the new MAC address
 
137.
A single generic frame has sections called fields.
 
138.
The Source address field identifies the frame's originating NIC or interface. And can be a unicast, multicast or broadcast address.
 
139.
The Source address field identifies the frame's originating NIC or interface and can be a unicast, multicast or broadcast address.
 
140.
Standards-based protocols stop products from different manufacturers interoperating successfully
 
141.
Starting at the top with the beginning of the frame put the fields in order.
 
142.
The statement "NVRAM invalid, possibly due to write erase", tells the user that this router has not been configured yet or that the NVRAM has been erased.
 
143.
Static or Fixed addresses are used for general purpose hosts such as end user devices, and DHCP is used for network devices such as gateways, switches, servers and printers.
 
144.
Store-and-forward is the sole forwarding method used on current models of Cisco Catalyst switches.
 
145.
The _____ sub layer controls the placement of frames on the media and the removal of frames from the media.
 
146.
A switch can be assigned an IP address
 
 

147.
Switches learn the MAC addresses of PCs or workstations that are connected to their switch ports by examining the source and destination addresses of frames that are received on that port.
 
148.
The TCP/IP protocol suite is an open standard, not a proprietary protocol.
 
149.
A technician configures a switch with these commands:
SwitchA(Config)# interface vlan 1
SwitchA(Config-if)# ip address192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
SwitchA(Config-if)# no shutdown
What is the technician configuring?
 
150.
Telnet provides stronger password authentication than SSH and uses encryption when transporting session data.
 
151.
The_______ describes the way a network transfers frames from one node to the next.
 
152.
The______ method is used by 802.11 wireless networking technologies.
 
153.
The_____sublayer controls the placement of frames on the media and the removal of frames from the media.
 
154.
Topology refers to the physical and logical diagrams which summarize network connections and information flow
 
155.
Traditional forms of Ethernet use the ______ method.
 
156.
Transport Layer Address
 
157.
Type the command that would display a PC's ARP table
 
158.
Type the command that would display the router's ARP table
 
159.
Type the FULL command at the prompt that will prevent all unencrypted passwords from displaying in plain text in a configuration file (config)# [___]
 
160.
Typing a "?" (question mark) at the privileged mode prompt, the screen displays a shorter list of commands than it would at the user mode prompt
 
161.
The underlying logical topology of Ethernet is a multi-access bus.
 
162.
A unicast communication
 
163.
Unlike IP addresses which are hierarchal, MAC addresses are considered flat address spaces.
 
164.
Uses a preamble field at the beginning of the frame_________
 
165.
Uses a preamble field at the beginning of the frame_______________
 
166.
____________ Uses CSMA/CA
 
167.
_________ Was originally developed to publish and retrieve Hypertext Markup Language pages and is now used for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems
 
168.
What address information is contained in the header of a frame?
 
169.
What address information is contained in the header of a packet?
 
170.
What address information is contained in the header of a segment?
 
171.
What are two modes of access to router commands for Cisco routers?
 
172.
What does a router route?
 
173.
What does it mean if you see the symbol ^ on a Cisco router user interface?
 
174.
What does the "D" in CSMA/CD stand for? _______________
 
175.
What do routers connect?
 
176.
What do routers do?
 
177.
What helps to limit the amount of broadcast traffic on local networks?
 
178.
What is the correct order of encapsulation? (From upper to lower layers)
 
179.
What is the destination address of an ARP request?
 
180.
What is the IEEE standard for 10-Gigabit Ethernet?
 
181.
What is the maximum transmission distance supported by 10Gig Ethernet?
 
 

182.
What is the name of the method used in Ethernet that explains how Ethernet works?
 
183.
What is the OSI model?
 
184.
What is the prompt for...Privileged EXEC mode?
 
185.
What is the prompt for... User EXEC mode
 
186.
What layer do hubs work on?
 
187.
What layer is logical or IP addresses found on?
 
188.
What would you type at the router user prompt if you want to see what configuration subcommands are available?
 
189.
When a switch configuration includes as user-defined error threshold on a per-port basis, to which switching method will the switch revert when the error threshold is reached?
 
190.
When data transmission resumes on an Ethernet network, after a collision, the devices that were involved in the collision have priority to transmit data again
 
191.
When in privileged EXEC mode, what command allows you to enter global configuration mode?
 
192.
When performing an initial configuration, a computer running terminal emulation software is connected to the console port of the device using a special cable.
193.
When the auto-MDIX feature is enabled, a switch detects the required cable type for copper Ethernet connections and configures the interfaces accordingly and therefore you wouldn't need to use a cross over cable to connect two switches
194.
When you click on a(n) _____ on a web page it will transfer you to a new web page
195.
Where are ARP tables maintained?
196.
Where do all communications on a network originate?
197.
Which command would you use to label an interface "Annapolis LAN"
198.
Which device looks at MAC address to make traffic flow decisions
199.
Which device looks at MAC address to make traffic flow decisions?
200.
Which devices make traffic "routing" decisions based on layer 2 addresses? Choose all that apply.
201.
Which form of switching is most likely to relay packets with errors?
202.
Which form of switching offers the lowest level of latency?
203.
Which layer of the OSI model ensures that the information that the application layer of one system sends out is readable by the application layer of another system
204.
Which layer of the OSI model is closest to the user?
205.
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for data compression?
206.
Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for establishment, management and termination of sessions between applications?
207.
Which layer of the OSI model provides connectivity and path selection between two end systems where routing occurs?
208.
Which layer of the OSI Model uses Frames for its encapsulation?
 

209.
Which layer of the OSI Model uses Packets for its encapsulation?
 
210.
Which layer of the OSI model uses Packets for its encapsulation?
 
211.
Which layer of the OSI model would be concerned with the protocol...IP
 
212.
Which mode do you use to make router configuration changes on Cisco routers?
 
213.
Which Mode is used for limited examination of router.
 
214.
Which of the following are Application layer protocols? (3)
 
215.
Which of the following are buffering techniques an Ethernet switch may use? Choose 2.
 
216.
Which of the following are considered to be "legacy" Ethernet? Choose 3.
 
217.
Which of the following are generic frame fields? Choose 6.
 
218.
Which of the following are needed to establish a Telnet session to the router? Choose 2
 
219.
Which of the following are Network Access layer protocols? (2)
 
220.
Which of the following are only capable of half duplex? Choose 2.
 
221.
Which of the following are Transport layer protocols? (2)
 
222.
Which of the following best define encapsulation?
 
223.
Which of the following best defines "protocol"?
 
224.
Which of the following best describes an ARP table?
225.
Which of the following could be a MAC address?
226.
Which of the following Ethernet frame fields specifies the upper-layer protocol to receive the data after Ethernet processing is completed?
227.
Which of the following Ethernet/IEEE 802.3 fields can be a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address
228.
Which of the following Ethernet/IEEE 802.3 frame fields can be a unicast, multicast, or broadcast address
229.
Which of the following Ethernet/IEEE 802.3 frame fields contains a 4 byte CRC value that is created by the sending device and is recalculated by the receiving device to check for damaged frames.
230.
Which of the following Ethernet/IEEE 802.3 frame fields ends with two consecutive 1 bits, which serve to synchronize the frame-reception portions of all stations on the LAN?
231.
Which of the following Ethernet/IEEE 802.3 frame fields is ALWAYS a unicast address
232.
Which of the following IEEE 802.3 frame fields sometimes has padding bytes inserted to ensure at least a 64-byte frame?
233.
Which of the following initiates an ARP request?
234.
Which of the following IOS Exec commands...is the same as typing the up arrow key
235.
Which of the following IOS Exec commands...moves back one character______
236.
Which of the following IOS Exec commands...moves to the beginning of the command line.
237.
Which of the following IOS Exec commands...moves to the end of the command line_______
 

238.
Which of the following is/are also known as Fast Ethernet? Choose 2.
 
239.
Which of the following is/are known as Fast Ethernet? Choose 2.
 
240.
Which of the following is NOT a function of CSMA/CD?
 
241.
Which of the following statements regarding TCP/IP is NOT true?
 
242.
Which of the following switching modes has the highest latency?
 
243.
Which of the following use(s) coaxial cable? Choose 2.
 
244.
Which of the following was the first medium used for Ethernet? Choose 1.
 
245.
Which OSI layer assigns sequence numbers to the segments to make sure the receiving host puts the data back together in the proper order?
 
246.
Which OSI layer does not provide support for any other layer?
 
247.
Which OSI layer... is concerned with binary transmission
 
248.
Which OSI layer... is concerned with physical addressing
 
249.
Which OSI layer...is concerned with routing
 
250.
Which OSI layer... negotiates data formats. And is concerned with encryption and decryption
 
251.
Which Protocol is being described? Basis for PING
 
252.
Which Protocol is being described? Dynamically assigns IP addresses to client stations at start-up and allows the addresses to be re-used when no longer needed [___]
 
253.
Which Protocol is being described? Enables a process on one host to send packets to a process running on another host but does not confirm successful datagram transmission.
 
254.
Which Protocol is being described? Enables reliable communication between processes running on separate hosts. Uses acknowledged transmissions that confirm successful delivery
 
255.
Which Protocol is being described? Network Access protocol that provides a means of encapsulating packets for transmission over a serial link [____]
256.
Which protocol is being described? Set rules that enable a user on one host to access and transfer files to and from another host over a network A reliable, connection-oriented, and acknowledged file delivery protocol [___]
257.
Which Protocol is being described? Translates IP addresses from a private network into globally unique public IP addresses
258.
Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two).
259.
While 10BASE5, 10BASE2, AND 10BASE-T all share the same timing parameters, they DO NOT have a common frame format
260.
With ______, either end of the communication can initiate the exchange and both devices are considered equal in the communication process
261.
With which form of switching is the entire frame received before any forwarding takes place?
262.
With which layer of the OSI model do you associate the phrase "dialogue control"?
263.
With which of the following are all four pairs of wires instead of the traditional two pairs of wires? Choose 1.
 

 

1.
The ____ _____ address is the IP address of the router that the host will use to access remote networks, including the Internet.
 
2.
These are used to translate IP addresses to domain names?
 
3.
By default, all switch boards on the switch are assigned to what vlan?
 
4.
The Cisco Switch is capable of __ number of remote log ins? how do you configure the login?
 
5.
How do you add a hostname and remove a hostname from a device?
 
6.
How do you add a password and secure privileged EXEC access?
 
7.
How do you return to USER EXEC from PRIVILEGED EXEC?
 
8.
If the device name is not explicitly configured what happens?
 
9.
if undesired changes were saved to the startup configuration, it may be necessary to clear all the configurations. This requires erasing the startup configuration and restarting the device. The startup configuration is removed by using the ____ _____-_____ privileged EXEC mode command. After the command is issued, the switch will prompt you for confirmation. Press Enter to accept.
10.
In order for an end device to communicate over the network, it must be configured with what 2 minimum things?
11.
The IOS has two forms of help available?
12.
IP address information can be entered into end devices manually, or automatically using?
13.
It is possible to display the IP configuration settings on a Windows PC by using the _____ command at the command prompt.
14.
_____ lines enable remote access to the device. How do you secure it?
 
15.
The most important password to configure is access to the?
 
16.
Networks are constructed from what three major components?
 
17.
PCs typically default to using _____ for automatic IP address configuration.
 
18.
The structure of an IPv4 address is called dotted decimal notation, what does this mean?
 
19.
A subnet mask is a special type of _____ address.
 
20.
The_____ -config and _____-config files display most passwords in plaintext. This is a security threat since anyone can see the passwords used if they have access to these files.
 
21.
There are many different sub-configuration modes. For example, to enter line sub-configuration mode, you use the line command followed by the ? How do you exit?
 
22.
There are two system files that store the device configuration:
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

23.
To access the switch remotely, an IP address and a ____ _____ must be configured on the SVI.
 
24.
to configure DHCP on a Windows PC, you only need to?
 
25.
To encrypt passwords, use the ____ ____-____global config command.
 
26.
To manually configure an IP address on a Windows host?
 
27.
To move from any sub-configuration mode of the global configuration mode to the mode one step above it in the hierarchy of modes, enter the ____ command.
 
28.
To move from any sub-configuration mode to the privileged EXEC mode, enter the ____ command
 
29.
To move from user EXEC mode to privileged EXEC mode, use the _____ command.
 
30.
To move in and out of global configuration mode, use the _____ ______ privileged EXEC mode command.
 
31.
To return to the privileged EXEC mode, enter the_____ global config mode command.
 
32.
T or F: IP addresses can be assigned to both physical ports and virtual interfaces on devices.
 
33.
To save changes made to the running configuration, the list of configuration stored in RAM (volatile), what do you do? (Also saves startup config)
34.
To secure the user EXEC access, the console port must be configured how?
35.
Types of network media include? (connections)
36.
The use of ___ _______ is the primary means of enabling devices to locate one another and establish end-to-end communication on the Internet.
37.
use the ____ ____-____privileged EXEC mode command to view the running configuration file. To view the startup configuration file, use the____ _____-____ privileged EXEC command.
38.
The virtual interface provides?
39.
What does Ctrl-C and Ctrl-Z do?
 

40.
What does DHCP do for a network?
 
41.
What enables login at line console 0 so admins can get in?
 
42.
What happens if you do not issue a "no shutdown" command after giving a Vlan an ip address?
 
43.
What secures your ports?
 
44.
What type of devices require IP addresses?
 
45.
When configuring a networking device, one of the first steps is configuring a?
 
46.
When do switches need IP addresses?
 
47.
When pinging, what is a very important tip to do to verify both ways are working?
 
 

 

1.
The ability of a network to be able to grow to accommodate new users and services is known as
 
2.
Both the Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 standards define the minimum frame size as __________ bytes and the maximum as __________ bytes.
 
3.
End devices on an Ethernet network accept and process frames based on _____________ addresses.
 
4.
An end device with a configured IP address is referred to as a ____________.
 
5.
Having multiple paths to a destination device in a network is known as ____________.
 
6.
Home users, teleworker (remote workers), and small offices typically require a connection to an Internet service provider (ISP) to access the Internet.
 
7.
The human network centers on the impact of the Internet and networks on colleges and universities
 
8.
In a packet-switched network, packets containing pieces of messages from different sources can travel the network at the same time.
 
9.
In ______ communication, data flow is bidirectional, so data can be sent and received at the same time.
 
10.
In networks, all data has to be prepared for transmission and placed onto the media by the receiving node as well as taken off the media by the sending node.
 
11.
The Internet layer of the TCP/IP model includes functions such as acknowledgement, error recovery, and sequencing.
 
12.
______________________ is a protocol used to deliver frames between two nodes.
 
13.
________________ is responsible for taking the formatted segments from TCP, encapsulating them into packets, assigning them the appropriate addresses, and delivering them across the best path to the destination host.
 
14.
_____________________________ is the CSMA method that is used by traditional forms of Ethernet.
 
15.
The ___________ is the device that routes traffic from the local network to devices on remote networks.
 
16.
__________ is the IP address of the receiving device.
 
17.
The ___________ is the IP address of the router interface used for network traffic to exit the local network.
 
18.
__________________ is the standard commonly known as Worldwide Interoperability for Microwave Access (WiMAX) and uses point-to-multipoint topology to provide wireless broadband access.
 
19.
_____________________ is the Wireless personal-area network (WPAN) standard, known as "Bluetooth," and uses a device pairing process to communicate over distances from 1 to 100 meters.
 
20.
Keywords are used to execute an action, and commands are used to identify where or how to execute the command.
 
21.
NVRAM is used by Cisco IOS as permanent storage for which of the following?
 
22.
On a Windows computer, what command can be used to identify the MAC address of an Ethernet adapter?
 
23.
The ________________ provides communications between the hardware and software of the computer system as well as manages hardware resources.
 
24.
To exit interface configuration mode and return to privileged EXEC mode, what command(s) should be entered at the prompt?
 
25.
Traditional learning methods provide which two sources of expertise from which the student can obtain information?
 
26.
What CLI shortcut is used to abort the current command?
 
27.
What command is used on a Cisco IOS router to display the routing table of the router?
 
28.
What happens when an Ethernet frame is less than 64 bytes in length?
 
29.
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number A8?
 
30.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 01000000?
 
31.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11111000?
 
32.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number A0?
 
33.
What is the decimal equivalent of the hexadecimal number AB?
 
34.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 01000000?
 
35.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 10000000?
 
36.
What key is used to return to the EXEC prompt at the -More—prompt?
 
37.
What type of switching is used on current L2 switches to allow QoS?
 
38.
When a message is being sent to a receiving device that is on a different network than the sending device, the data link destination MAC address is the Ethernet MAC address of the default gateway or router.
 
39.
When a user interacts with the shell of the Cisco IOS by entering commands on the keyboard at a command prompt, he is using the ____________
 
40.
When entering the route print command, the Interface List section displays which of the following?
 
41.
Which field in an IPv4 header is used for error checking of the IP header?
 
42.
Which of the following is a type of Layer 3 switch interface?
 
43.
Which of the following is false with respect to IPv6 extension headers (EH)?
 
44.
Which of the following is not a field in the Ethernet frame header?
 
 

45.
Which of the following is not an example of a proprietary protocol?
 
46.
Which of the following is not an improvement of IPv6 over IPv4?
 
47.
Which of the following is not true of coaxial cables?
 
48.
Which of the following network security controls is used to identify fast-spreading threats, such as zero-day or zero-hour attacks?
 
49.
Which of the following protocols is not associated with the Transport layer of the OSI model?
 
50.
Which protocol receives message segments from the transport layer, packages them into packets, and addresses them for end-to-end delivery over an internetwork?
 
 

 

1.
According to the textbook, Powerline networking is designed to be a substitute for dedicated cabling for data networks.
 
2.
According to the textbook, which of the following is not a criterion when choosing a network medium?
 
3.
According to the textbook, which of the following is not listed as one of the drivers for organizations to develop and implement a video solution strategy?
 
4.
After password encryption has been applied, removing the encryption service reverses the encryption of existing passwords.
 
5.
All end devices and network devices connected to the Internet require an operating system (OS) to help them perform their function.
 
6.
As more wireless devices access a network simultaneously, _________________ network performance might occur.
 
7.
Both the Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 standards define the minimum frame size as __________ bytes and the maximum as __________ bytes
 
8.
Cloud-based services in a ________________ cloud are made available to the general population and use the Internet to provide services.
 
9.
_______________________ consists of a very small core and uses expensive laser technology to send a single ray of light.
 
10.
Controlled access is also known as ______.
 
11.
Data is transmitted on copper cables as ______________________.
 
12.
The data link frame includes a ______________________, which contains control information for error detection added to the end of the PDU.
 
13.
Ethernet and wireless networks use ____________________________.
 
14.
Ethernet is a contention-based method of networking that provides a method for controlling how the nodes share access to the medium through the use of __________________ technology.
 
15.
The Ethernet ______________ sublayer handles the communication between the upper layers and the lower layer (i.e. between the networking software and the device hardware).
 
16.
hat services are provided by the data link layer?
 
17.
Home users, teleworker (remote workers), and small offices typically require a connection to an Internet service provider (ISP) to access the Internet.
 
18.
In a logical ring topology, all nodes around the ring (between the source and destination node) examine the frame.
 
19.
In ________________________ communication, both devices can transmit and receive on the media at the same time.
 
20.
In ______ communication, data flow is bidirectional, so data can be sent and received at the same time.
 
21.
In cut-through switching, the switch does not perform any error checking on the frame.
 
22.
In _________________________, each node has its own time to use the medium.
 
23.
__________ involves measures being taken to ensure that information access is strictly controlled.
 
24.
_________________________ is a family of networking technologies that are defined in the IEEE 802.2 and 802.3 standards and operate at the data link layer of the OSI model.
 
25.
Is the binary number 01010101 odd or even?
 
26.
_____________________________ is the CSMA method that is used by 802.11 wireless networking technologies.
 
27.
The ___________ is the IP address of the router interface used for network traffic to exit the local network.
 
28.
____________________ is the physical address of the device that is sending a packet.
 
29.
______________________ is the process of protocols adding information to the packet at each level as it is passed down the protocol stack on its way to be transmitted across the network media.
 
30.
is the simplest topology that consists of a permanent link between two endpoints.
31.
____________ is the transport protocol that manages the individual conversations between web servers and web clients.
32.
The ____________________ is the upper sublayer of the data link layer that defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols.
33.
Just above the physical layer is the _________________ layer.
34.
The ____________________ layer must generate the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the "1" and "0" on the media.
35.
ndicate the appropriate order for the following ARP processes that occur when an entry is not found in a cached map of an ARP table.
(1) A map is created in the ARP table
(2) AN ARP request packet is sent out.
(3) Layer 2 processes notify ARP that it needs a map.
(4) If a device's destination IP address matches the IP address in the request, it responds with an ARP reply.
36.
Networks have created geographic and time-zone boundaries, allowing us to easily communicate with individuals from around the world.
37.
________________________ offer a switching component with multiple ports, allowing multiple devices to be connected to the local-area network (LAN) using cables.
38.
On a switch, what command(s) are used to restore a device to its default "out of the box" configuration?
39.
On a Windows computer, what command can be used to identify the MAC address of an Ethernet adapter?
40.
One single organization regulates the Internet.
41.
On Ethernet networks, the broadcast MAC address is displayed as ____________________.
42.
Online learning opportunities can decrease time-consuming and costly travel yet still ensure that all employees are adequately trained to perform their jobs in a safe and productive manner.
43.
On metallic wires, data is encoded into ___________ that match specific patterns
 

44.
Potential sources of ____________________ include radio waves and electromagnetic devices such as fluorescent lights or electric motors.
 
45.
The ________________ provides communications between the hardware and software of the computer system as well as manages hardware resources.
 
46.
_________________________ refers to the physical connections and identifies how end devices and infrastructure devices such as router, switches, and wireless access points are interconnected
 
47.
The ______________ sublayer of the data link layer is responsible for the placement of frames on the media and the removal of frames from the media
 
48.
A Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) must be enabled to provide IP host connectivity to the switch and permit remote switch administration. SVIs must also be configured to allow routing between VLANs.
 
49.
telnet sessions require active networking services on a device with at least one active interface configured with an Internet address.
 
50.
To offer wireless capability, a network must incorporate a ____________ to which to connect devices
 
51.
The ___________________ topology is the most common physical LAN topology
 
52.
To remove the hostname of a device, what command is used?
 
53.
Traditionally, telephone, radio, and television networks were maintained separately from data networks
 
54.
_________________ uses LED emitters to send light pulses and is popular in LANs, providing bandwidth up to 10 Gbps over link lengths of up to 550 meters.
 
55.
Using classification to manage QoS, all data within the same classification is treated according to the same rules.
 
56.
What CLI shortcut is used to allow the user to scroll backward through former commands?
 
57.
What command is used to access the privileged EXEC mode from the user EXEC mode?
 
58.
What command is used to create a message of the day banner that warns users that only authorized individuals should access the system?
 
59.
What command is used to display information about the device?
 
60.
What happens if the CSMA process fails and two devices transmit at the same time, creating a data collision?
 
61.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 01000000?
 
62.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11110000?
 
63.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 00000011?
 
64.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 01000000?
 
65.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 10101010?
 
66.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 65?
 
67.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 127?
 
68.
What is the name given to the Ethernet MAC sublayer PDU?
 
69.
What is the primary defense against unauthorized remote access to network devices?
 
70.
When a device is powered on, the IOS is copied from flash into
 
71.
When a host needs to send a message to a remote network, it must use a router, also known as the ___________________________.
 
72.
When using the controlled access method, network devices take turns, in sequence, to access the medium. If an end device does not need to access the medium, the opportunity passes to the next end device.
 
73.
Which layer of the OSI model has protocols that describe the mechanical, electrical, functional, and procedural means to activate, maintain, and deactivate physical connections for bit transmissions to and from a network device?
 
74.
Which layer of the TCP/IP model represents data to the user, plus encoding and dialog control?
 
 

75.
Which mode is used to configure one of the physical or virtual lines?
 
76.
Which of the following are disadvantages of using fiber-optic cabling over copper media?
 
77.
Which of the following is a serious consequence that can occur as a result of compromising the integrity of network assets?
 
78.
Which of the following is false with respect to the Internet?
 
79.
Which of the following is not a component of Cisco Express Forwarding (CEF)?
 
80.
Which of the following is not among the common patch cords for interconnecting infrastructure devices as listed in the textbook?
 
81.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Ethernet MAC sublayer?
 
82.
Which of the following is not governed by one of the Wireless standards (IEEE 802.11, 802.15, or 802.16)?
 
83.
Which of the following is not one of the basic forms of network media
 
84.
Which of the following is used to counter the negative effects of crosstalk?
 
85.
Which of the following types of help are provided in the Cisco IOS?
 
86.
Which standard specifies the Ethernet MAC sublayer functionality in a computer NIC?
 
87.
Which two addresses are contained in an IP packet?
 
88.
Which type of traffic must receive the highest priority from QoS?
 
89.
Wireless media carry ___________________________ signals that represent the binary digits of data communications using radio or microwave frequencies.
 
90.
With wireless devices, data is transmitted using ______________________.
 

1.
During the bootup of a router or switch, where is the IOS and Startup-config transferred to?
 
2.
From the CLI of a switch with an address of 192.168.1.44, what command would be used to verify end-to-end connectivity to another host?
 
3.
How is the Cisco IOS generally accessed and navigated?
 
4.
It allows access through use of telnet or ssh protocols.

It can be used to restore an out-of-box configuration on a switch or router

It requires an active network connection

It is not supported on Catalyst switch devices.

It displays startup, debugging and error messages by default

It connects through dial-up connections
 
5.
Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts.(not all options are used)
 
6.
A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
 
7.
A network administrator is planning an IOS upgrade on several of the head office routers and switches. Which three questions must be answered before continuing with the IOS selection and upgrade? (Choose three.)
8.
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
9.
Redisplays, on a new line, the command currently being typed

Scrolls backwards through previously entered commands

returns directly to the privileged exec mode

cancels any command currectly being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode

completes abbreviated commands and parameters
10.
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
11.
A switch was configured as shown. A ping to the default gateway was issued, but the ping was not successful. Other switches in the same network can ping this gateway. What is a possible reason for this?
12.
What Command will display a List of keywords available for viewing the status of an IOS Switch?
13.
What four devices does a home based router consist of?
 
 
 
 
 
 

14.
What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?
 
15.
What is initially entered at the CLI of the Cisco IOS when typing a command sequence?
 
16.
What is the Cisco IOS?
 
17.
What is the primary defense against unauthorized remote access to network devices?
 
18.
What is the purpose of the following switch configuration?

s1(config)# interface vlan 1

s1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.122.222 255.255.255.0

s1(config-if)#no shutdown

s1(config-if)#exit
 
19.
What type of connection to a Cisco IOS switch is used to make the initial configuration?
 
20.
When pinging 127.0.0.1 what are you testing?
 
21.
When the Command "Switch(config)# hostname EaSt-2+56" is entered in a Cisco IOS device using the CLI, what will be returned in the CLI?
 
22.
Where is the Cisco IOS loaded from?
 
23.
Where is the configuration used during startup on Cisco IOS devices located?
 
24.
Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure environment?
 
25.
Which two features are characteristics of flash memory? (Choose two.)
 
26.
Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)
 
 
 
 
 
 

 

1.
Completes abbreviated commands and parameters 
Redisplays, on a new line, the command currently being typed 
Returns directly to the privileged exec mode 
Cancels any command currectly being entered and returns directly to privileged EXEC mode 
Scrolls backwards through previously entered commands
 
2.
During the bootup of a router or switch, where is the IOS and Startup-config transferred to?
 
3.
From the CLI of a switch with an address of 192.168.1.44, what command would be used to verify end-to-end connectivity to another host?
 
4.
How is the Cisco IOS generally accessed and navigated?
 
5.
It connects through dialup connections 
It displays startup, debugging and error messages by default 
It is not supported on Catalyst switch devices. 
It requires an active network connection 
It can be used to restore an out-of-box configuration on a switch or router 
It allows access through use of telnet or ssh protocols.
 
6.
A network administrator enters the service password-encryption command into the configuration mode of a router. What does this command accomplish?
 
7.
A network administrator is planning an IOS upgrade on several of the head office routers and switches. Which three questions must be answered before continuing with the IOS selection and upgrade?
 
8.
A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?
9.
A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the router boots up, which mode will display?
10.
up arrow 
ctrl-z 
ctrl-r 
tab 
ctrl-shift-6 
ctrl-c
11.
What Command will display a List of keywords available for viewing the status of an IOS Switch?
12.
What four devices does a home based router consist of?
13.
What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?
14.
What is initially entered at the CLI of the Cisco IOS when typing a command sequence?
 
15.
What is the Cisco IOS?
 
16.
What is the primary defense against unauthorized remote access to network devices?
 
17.
What is the purpose of the following switch configuration?
s1(config)# interface vlan 1
s1(config-if)#ip address 192.168.122.222 255.255.255.0
s1(config-if)#no shutdown
s1(config-if)#exit
 
18.
What type of connection to a Cisco IOS switch is used to make the initial configuration?
 
19.
When pinging 127.0.0.1 what are you testing?
 
20.
When the Command "Switch(config)# hostname EaSt-2+56" is entered in a Cisco IOS device using the CLI, what will be returned in the CLI?
 
21.
Where is the Cisco IOS loaded from?
 
22.
Where is the configuration used during startup on Cisco IOS devices located?
 
23.
Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure environment?
 
24.
Which two features are characteristics of flash memory?
 
25.
Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI?
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

 

1.
A(n) __________________ is a 48-bit data-link address that is physically embedded on the Ethernet NIC of an end device
 
2.
__________________ are established rules or agreements to govern communication.
 
3.
An ARP request is a _____________________ message.
 
4.
A _________________________ consists of the media that provide the pathway over which a message travels from source to destination.
 
5.
__________ is the IP address of the receiving device.
 
6.
_________________________ is the process of converting information into another, acceptable form for transmission
 
7.
___________ is the process used by a receiving device to remove one or more of the protocol headers.
 
8.
The ________ is the world's largest developer of international standards for a wide variety of products and services.
 
9.
A protocol that governs communication over a data link and the physical transmission of data on the network media is ________________.
 
10.
What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 200?
 
11.
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number A0?
 
12.
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number EF?
 
13.
What is the binary equivalent of the hexadecimal number FF?
 
14.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11110000?
 
15.
What is the decimal equivalent of the binary number 11111111?
 
16.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 00100001?
 
17.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 10000000?
 
18.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the binary number 10000001?
 
19.
What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the decimal number 127?
 
20.
What two parts make up a Layer 3 IP address used to represent the source and destination devices?
21.
Which layer of the TCP/IP model supports communication between diverse devices across diverse networks?
22.
Which of the following is not a common network protocol?
23.
Which of the following protocols is not associated with the Transport layer of the OSI model?
24.
Which organization coordinates IP address allocation, the management of domain names used by DNS, and the protocol identifiers or port numbers used by TCP and UDP protocols?
25.
Which protocol is a simple, connectionless file transfer protocol that provides a best-effort, unacknowledged delivery?
 

1.
According to the textbook, throughput usually does not match the specified bandwidth in physical layer implementations.
 
2.
The data link frame includes a ______________________, which contains control information for error detection added to the end of the PDU.
 
3.
Ethernet and wireless networks use ____________________________.
 
4.
Fire hazards exist in copper media because cable insulation and sheaths can be flammable or produce toxic fumes when heated or burned.
 
5.
In a __________________________ cable, one end is 568A and the other end is 568B.
 
6.
In _________________________, each node has its own time to use the medium.
 
7.
In which type of industry is fiber optic being used to provide reliable high-speed, high-capacity solutions capable of or surviving in harsh undersea environments up to transoceanic distances?
 
8.
_________________________ is a transmission technique in which the amplitude of the carrier varies in accordance with the signal.
 
9.
___________________________ is the most common type of networking cable. It is commonly used to interconnect a host to a switch and a switch to a router.
 
10.
The ____________________ is the upper sublayer of the data link layer that defines the software processes that provide services to the network layer protocols.
 
11.
Just above the physical layer is the _________________ layer.
 
12.
The _________________ layer controls how data is transmitted onto the physical media by encoding the binary digits that represent data into signals.
 
13.
The __________________ layer produces the representation and grouping of bits as voltages, radio frequencies, or light pulses
 
14.
The new 10-GB standard for Ethernet has a provision for the use of STP cabling, and this provision is causing a renewed interest in STP cabling.
 
15.
On the receiving end, the _________________ layer receives signals across the connecting media, decodes the signal back into data, and passes the data to the ____________layer for acceptance and processing.
 
16.
To offer wireless capability, a network must incorporate a ____________ to which to connect devices.
 
17.
What type of encoding has two states termed "zero" and "one" and no neutral or rest position. That is, a 0 might be represented by one voltage level, and a 1 might be represented by a different voltage.
 
18.
What type of physical topology involves end systems connected to their respective neighbor, forming a circle
 
19.
When using fiber-optic cable, the signals are patterns of _____________.
 
20.
Which of the following is a characteristic of Cat3 cables?
 
21.
Which of the following is an OSI model layer within the TCP/IP model's Network Access layer?
 
22.
Which of the following items do not comprise the physical components addressed in physical layer standards?
 
23.
Which of the following organizations does not govern the physical layer hardware, media, encoding and signaling standards for the OSI model?
 
24.
Which Wi-Fi standard operates in the 5-GHz frequency band and offers speeds of up to 54 Mbps?
 
25.
With _______________, the signals are patterns of electrical pulses.
 
 

 

1.
Both the Ethernet II and IEEE 802.3 standards define the minimum frame size as __________ bytes and the maximum as __________ bytes.
 
2.
_______________________ buffering deposits all frames into a common memory buffer that all the ports on the switch share.
 
3.
Cisco routers use ROM to store which of the following?
 
4.
Each route a packet takes to reach the destination host is called a ___________.
 
5.
A host can send a packet to
 
6.
In ______ communication, data flow is bidirectional, so data can be sent and received at the same time.
 
7.
In ________________ switching, the switch stores the first 64 bytes of the frame before forwarding.
 
8.
The Internet is largely based on _____, which is still the most widely used network layer protocol.
 
9.
_________________________ is a family of networking technologies that are defined in the IEEE 802.2 and 802.3 standards and operate at the data link layer of the OSI model
 
10.
The _______________ is a program that interacts directly with the hardware on the NIC to pass the data between the MAC sublayer and the physical media.
 
11.
The ___________ is the device that routes traffic from the local network to devices on remote networks.
 
12.
A _______________________ MAC address is the unique address used when a frame is sent from a single transmitting device to a single destination device.
 
13.
NVRAM is used by Cisco IOS as permanent storage for which of the following?
 
14.
On a Cisco router, what command is used to display the ARP table?
 
15.
A Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) must be enabled to provide IP host connectivity to the switch and permit remote switch administration. SVIs must also be configured to allow routing between VLANs.
 
16.
What command can be used to display a host's routing table in Windows?
 
17.
What command is used on a Cisco IOS router to display the routing table of the router?
 
18.
What happens when an Ethernet frame is less than 64 bytes in length?
 
19.
What is the IPv6 equivalent of the local default route?
 
20.
What type of switch is one that you cannot add features or options to beyond those that originally came with the switch?
 
21.
Which of the following field(s) in an IPv4 header are used to keep track of fragments?
 
22.
Which of the following is not a column in an IPv6 Route Table?
 
23.
Which of the following is not a component of a router?
 
24.
Which of the following is not a responsibility of the Ethernet MAC sublayer?
 
25.
Without network layer services, there would be no Internet.
 
 

 

 

1.
The _____ address range is reserved for a computer to communicate with itself and is called the loopback.
 
2.
An advantage of centralized routing is
 
3.
A(n) ________ refers to a group of computers that are logically grouped together by IP number.
 
4.
An application layer address using TCP/IPv4 looks like:
 
5.
Assume that more than one application program is using the same communications line on a particular computer. To be able to decide to which application program a message should be delivered on this computer, TCP/IP relies on the
 
6.
A client computer is assigned a data link layer address is by:
 
7.
________created a service that allows organizations to transfer IPv4 addresses they don't need to another organization.
 
8.
The ______ defines what type of packets should be routed and what types of packets should be discarded.
 
9.
Dynamic addressing:
 
10.
ICANN:
 
11.
IGMP refers to:
 
12.
In its simplest form, the __________ has two columns: the first column lists every computer and device in the network, while the second column lists the computer or device to which that computer should send messages, if they are destined for the computer in the first column
13.
IP:
14.
IP addresses from 224 to 239 belong to Class D and are reserved for
15.
IPv4 provides ___________ IP addresses
16.
IPv4 uses ________ bytes per Internet address
17.
IPv6 is based upon _________ -byte addresses
18.
_________ is a specially formatted request used to perform IP address to data link address resolution.
19.
_______________ is a type of dynamic routing
20.
__________ is not an important function of the transport layer.
21.
_______ is the dominant network protocol today
22.
___________ is the process of determining the path that a message will travel from sending computer to receiving computer.
23.
___________ is the translation of application layer addresses into IP addresses.
24.
The _____________ is used by a computer to determine how messages will travel through the network.
25.
The ____________ layer links the application layer with the network layer is responsible for end-to-end delivery of messages.
26.
A majority of routers use the following operating system
27.
the negotiation by the transport layer at the sender with the transport layer at the receiver to determine what size packets should be set up is done via establishing a(n) ___________ between the sender and receiver.
28.
The newer form of IP, version 6 (Ipv6):
29.
The older version of IP has a ________ header of control information. 
128-bit
 
30.
One drawback to dynamic routing is
 
31.
The ping command uses the most basic interior routing protocol on the Internet, which is the:
 
32.
____________ refers to the type of routing in which the routing table is developed by the network manager and modifications are made only when computers are added to or removed from the network.
 
33.
_____________ routing is a method of routing in which each packet makes its own way through the network.
 
34.
______________ routing is most commonly used when the application data or message can fit into one single packet.
 
35.
Server name resolution is done using the
 
36.
The source destination port identifier tells the destination station _____________.
 
37.
A special type of message that is used when sending the same message to all computers on a specific LAN or subnet is called a:
 
38.
A special type of message that is used when sending the same message to a specific group of computers is called a:
 
39.
A subnet mask of ___________ means that all computers with only the same first two bytes in their IPv4 addresses are on the same subnet
 
40.
A TCP connection is established in the ___________ routing method.
 
41.
TCP/IP:
 
42.
TCP uses _____________ so that the destination station can reassemble the packets into the correct order.
 
 

43.
The three fundamental approaches to routing are:
 
44.
Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol was developed for ________ in 1974
 
45.
The transport layer must break messages from the application layer into several _____ that can be sent to the data link layer.
 
46.
A type of message that is used when sending a message from one computer to another computer is called a:
 
47.
A typical TCP packet has a _______ header of control information
 
48.
UDP is not commonly used for
 
49.
When TCP/IP translates an application layer address into an IP address, it sends a special __________ to the nearest DNS server.
 
50.
When TCP/IP translates a network layer address into a data link layer address, it sends a special ____________ to all computers in the subnet
 
51.
Which of the following is not a component of a router?
 
52.
Which of the following is not a protocol used at the application layer
 
53.
Which of the following is not given to a client computer when it is first installed on a TCP/IP network so that it has the appropriate routing/addressing information?
 
54.
With QoS routing different __________ are defined, each with different priorities.
 
55.
With ________ routing, computers or routers count the number of hops along a route and periodically exchange information on the hop count with their neighbors.
 
 

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find HTTP?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find IP?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find TCP?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find SSL/TLS?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find SSH?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find ARP?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find Ethernet protocol?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find Ethernet cable?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find Encryption?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find a Network Switch?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find a Network Hub?

 

At which layer of the OSI Model would you use/find UDP? What characteristics describe UDP?


Uses best effort delivery, connectionless and fast. The main security flaw is susceptibility to spoofing and DOS attacks.

 

What layers are in the TCP/IP model and how do they compare to the OSI model?

 

Which port is assigned to DNS?

 

Which port is assigned to FTP?

 

Which port is assigned to HTTP? HTTPS?

 

Which port is assigned to ICMP/ECHO?

 

Which port is assigned to LDAP?

 

Which port is assigned to LDAPS?

 

Which port is assigned to RADIUS Authentication?

 

Which port is assigned to RDP?

 

Which port is assigned to SIP?

 

Which port is assigned to SMTP?

 

Which port is assigned to SNMP?

 

Which port is assigned to SSH?

 

Which port is assigned to SSL?

 

Which port is assigned to UDP?

 

Which port is assigned to IMAP4?

 

Which port is assigned to IPSEC?

 

Which port is assigned to TFTP?

 

Which port is assigned to NTP?

 

Which port is assigned to DHCP?

 

Which port is assigned to NFS?

 

Which port is assigned to HTTP Proxy?

 

1.
The address block for legacy Class B networks included the range
 
2.
Address resolution is used when a device on the LAN knows the IPv6 unicast address of a destination but does not know its Ethernet MAC address. To determine the MAC address for the destination, the device will send a(n) ___ message to the solicited-node address. The device that has the targeted IPv6 address will respond with a(n) ____ message containing its Ethernet MAC address.
 
3.
The default subnet mask for a Class A address is _____________.
 
4.
The default subnet mask for a Class C address is _____________.
 
5.
The double colon can only be used once within an IPv6 address.
 
6.
A host address has any combination of 0 and 1 bits in the host portion of the address but cannot contain all 0 bits or all 1 bits.
 
7.
How can a device obtain an IPv6 global unicast address automatically?
 
8.
In a limited broadcast, a host within 172.16.4.0/24 will broadcast to all hosts in its network using a destination address of
 
9.
IPv4 addresses are represented using _______________ format where each byte (octet) is a decimal number in the range of 0 to 255.
 
10.
The IPv4 __________ address is a special address for each network that allows communication to all the hosts in that network
 
11.
IPv6 allows multiple IPv6 addresses, belonging to the same IPv6 network, to be configured on the same interface.
 
12.
The legacy Class C address block was designed to support small networks with a maximum of 254 host addresses and used a ___________ prefix.
 
13.
The ping command for IPv6 is identical to the command used with IPv4, except that an IPv6 address is used.
 
14.
What is the IPv4 subnet mask for the network 192.168.2.0/24?
 
15.
What is the purpose of the network address?
 
16.
What is the result of the binary number 00000000 ANDed with 00101010?
 
17.
What is the result of the binary number 11111111 ANDed with 00101010?
 
18.
What symbol is used to replace any single, contiguous string of one or more 16-bit hextets consisting of all 0s?
 
19.
What two parts make up an Ethernet MAC address?
 
20.
Which IPv4 block of addresses is reserved for future use and is currently being used for research and experimentation purposes?
 
21.
Which IPv6 addresses are equivalent to public IPv4 addresses in that they are globally unique and routable on the Internet?
 
22.
Which of the following IPv4 addresses would be used in a private network?
 
23.
Which of the following is not a type of broadcast address?
 
24.
Which of the following techniques allows IPv4 and IPv6 to coexist on the same network?
 
25.
Which option contained in a Router Advertisement (RA) message indicates that the device should use the normal process of discovering and querying a DHCPv6 server to obtain all its addressing information, including an IPv6 global unicast address, a prefix length, a default gateway address, and the addresses of DNS servers.
 
 

 

1.
The address 127.0.0.1 has been assigned as the IP address for a local host. What is the problem with this?
 
2.
All devices attached to the same network will have an IPv4 host address for that network and a common ____________________.
 
3.
Any network resource, such as a server or a printer, should always have a dynamic IP adress
 
4.
A configuration where all devices in an organization are assigned an IP address with a matching network ID is called a(n) ________________ network design.
 
5.
How many hosts per network can you have with a subnet mask of 255.255.224.0?
 
6.
How many subnets can be created if 4 bits are borrowed to specify subnets?
 
7.
In subnetting, for each bit borrowed from the host portion of a network address, the number of subnetworks available _______________________.
 
8.
The IP address 0.10.255.1 is a valid address to assign to a host
 
9.
The IP address 10.0.0.1 /24 is a network address.
 
10.
The IP address 198.10.132.67 /26 is a network address.
 
11.
Network administrators can group devices and services into subnets that are determined by _____________.
 
12.
A network technician borrows 5 bits from the 10.0.0.0/16 network to create subnets. What is the subnet mask that should be associated with each of the newly created subnets?
 
13.
A new department has been established with 511 hosts that require addresses. Currently, the company uses the 10.20.0.0/16 address space. How many bits must the network administrator borrow to provide addresses for this subnet without wasting addresses?
 
14.
To determine whether traffic on a network is local or remote, a router uses a ______________________
 
15.
Using an IPv4 network address of 192.168.2.0/26, what is the broadcast address in the second subnet (i.e. subnet[1])?
16.
What is the first step in planning network subnets?
17.
What is the primary purpose of subnetting IPv6 address space?
18.
What subnet mask would be used with the hosts in the 128.107.176.0 /22 network?
19.
Which of the following subnet masks is used to represent a prefix mask of / 26
20.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that the subnet mask will be 255.255.255.252. How many subnets are possible in this design?
21.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that the subnet mask will be 255.255.255.252. How many usable hosts per subnet are possible in this design?
22.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that the subnet mask will be 255.255.255.252. What is the first usable host address in the first subnet (i.e. subnet[0])?
23.
You are given an IPv4 network address of 192.168.10.0/24 by your ISP. You need to subnet this network. You know that you need at least 6 subnets. What will be the address of your first usable host in your first subnet (i.e. subnet[0])?
24.
You have been assigned an IP address for your network of 192.168.1.0 / 24. Each subnet needs to accommodate 12 hosts. How many bits do you need to borrow to create your subnets?
25.
You need to subnet a network that has 5 subnets, each with at least 16 hosts. Which subnet mask would you use?
 

 

1.
7. Distortion occurs when
a. Bandwidth = Passband
b. Bandwidth < Passband
c. Bandwidth Passband
d. Distortion always occurs under any circumstance
e. Distortion never occurs
 
2.
According to the textbook, VCR's are:

a. User-friendly
b. User-hostile
c. User-seductive
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
3.
All radiation is said to have 
a. wavelength
b. amplitude 
c. frequency 
d. phase
e. power
f. All of the above
 
4.
The amplitude of electromagnetic energy is measured in 
a. time (cycles per second)
b. power (electron volts)
c. distance (meters)
d. phase (what value the wave has at any single instant in time)
e. None of the above
 
5.
Analog Function
 
6.
Bandwidth
 
7.
Baseband
 
8.
Bearers that transport electric currents for the delivery of voice and low-speed data messages between parties separated by some distance.
 
9.
Binary Function
 
10.
Circuit
 
11.
The code "a = 1100001" is an example of 
a. EBCDIC
b. ASCII
c. Analog
d. Pascal
e. None of the above
 
12.
Describe the cancellation effect in twisted pairs.
 
13.
Describe the difference between direct current and alternating current.
 
14.
Describe the process by which voice signals are digitized.
 
15.
Digital Function
 
16.
Electromagnetic waves are frequently represented mathematically using a sine wave on a _____________ graph.

a. X-Y
b. Bar
c. Cartesian
d. Polar rectal
e. All of the above
 
17.
Electrostatic fields
 
18.
The frequency of electromagnetic energy is measured in: 
a. time (cycles per second)
b. power (electron volts)
c. distance (meters)
d. phase (what value the wave has at any single instant in time)
e. None of the above
 
19.
Full duplex
 
20.
Full-duplex information flow
21.
Given a signal power of 4 and a noise power of 2, what is the signal to noise ratio? (note: you do not have to express this in logarithmic terms and decibels in this problem)
a. ½
b. 4
c. 2
d. 0
e. None of the above
22.
Half-duplex information flow
23.
In a data network, what type of flow control will not allow sending until the receiver is free to receive?
a. Credit based
b. Time based
c. Rate based
d. Flow based
e. All of the above
24.
In a half-duplex, what type of ARQ (Automatic Repeat-reQuest) is involved when information is sent frame by frame and the sender stops and waits until the receiver acknowledges that no errors have occurred?
a. Terminate
b. Go Back "n"
c. Stop and Wait
d. Resend All
e. Continue
f. None of the above
25.
In a half-duplex, what type of ARQ (Automatic Repeat-reQuest) is involved when the sending station sends several frames before pausing for acknowledgment?
a. Terminate
b. Go Back "n"
c. Stop and Wait
d. Resend All
e. Continue
f. None of the above
 

26.
In fiber-optics, signals are converted to ______________ to enter the cable and are converted back into ____________when they leave it.
a. light pulses, electrical signals
b. electrical signals, light pulses
c. analog, digital
d. frequencies, amplitudes
e. none of the above
 
27.
Interexchange carrier
 
28.
In twisted pair cables, the pair is twisted to protect against
a. Cross-talk
b. Reception
c. Insulation
d. Cancellation
e. None of the above
 
29.
In what case would the bandwidth be equal to the baseband of a signal?
a. When the signal has degraded 
b. When the signal is the original message signal
c. The bandwidth can never be equal to the baseband of a signal
d. Both a and b above
 
30.
_____________ is the frequency range associated with a message signal when first generated.
a. Passband
b. Distortion
c. Bandwidth
d. Baseband
 
31.
______ is the measure of the amount of electrons (amps) going through a circuit.
a. Voltage
b. Resistance
c. Power
d. Current
e. All of the above
 
32.
A ________________is the physical diagram used to describe all the possible symbols used by a signaling system to transmit data and is an aid to designing better communications systems. 
a. ER Diagram
b. Signal Constellation
c. Flowchart
d. Process Diagram
e. All of the above
33.
__________ is the process of determining the value of the amplitude of an analog signal at an instant in time.

a. Modulating
b. Splicing
c. Sampling
d. Tuning
e. None of the above
34.
______________ is the property of a material that causes it to oppose the movement of electrons.
a. Voltage
b. Resistance
c. Power
d. Current
e. All of the above
35.
KANE _____
36.
LATA
37.
List two characteristics of UTP cables that are different from STP cables.
38.
Nyquist's limit states that the maximum signaling rate over a channel with a passband B Hz is 
a. 1000 seconds 
b. 2 Baud
c. 10 MHz
d. 1 GB
e. None of the above
 

39.
Passband
 
40.
PEACE THROUGH _____
 
41.
Point-to-multipoint
 
42.
Propagate through free space, or are guided by coaxial cables, to carry television signals to millions of recievers or deliver digital signal streams to microwave relay points.
 
43.
Sampling
 
44.
Simplex information flow
 
45.
Talkspurts
 
46.
Telecommunication
 
47.
Telecommunications
 
48.
Three classes of information systems: Evaluative Systems
 
49.
Three classes of information systems: Informative Systems
 
50.
Three classes of information systems: Supportive Systems
 
51.
Transducers
 
52.
True or false: Baseband is the range of frequencies that just encompasses all of the energy present in a given signal.
 
53.
True or False: Categories of UTP cables are based on the number of wires in the cable and the number of twists in the wires.
54.
True or false: Electrical pressure (voltage) can force the electrons out of their orbits and make them pass from atom to atom along the wire (i.e. the conductor).
55.
True or False: Everything from gamma rays all the way through the visible light spectrum to radio waves are all electromagnetic energy and differ primarily in amplitude.
56.
True or false: In parity checking, an extra bit is added to the message to always make the message ODD.
57.
True or false: Insulators have little resistance, and conductors have a lot of resistance.
58.
True or false: In the Services Plane, services that form the boundary line at 45° to the axes have the same richness in each direction and share the maximum common information space.
59.
True or false: Radio waves can easily travel through water and cement.
60.
True or false: Twisted pair cables are made of nickel wire.
61.
Using Ohm's law, determine: if a voltage of 80 volts crosses a resistance of 5 ohms, what is the current through the resistance?
62.
The wavelength of electromagnetic energy is measured in 
a. time (cycles per second)
b. power (electron volts)
c. distance (meters)
d. phase (what value the wave has at any single instant in time)
e. None of the above
63.
What are manifestations of messages exchanged at a distance over telecommunication facilities?

a. Telecommunications
b. Signals
c. Bearers
d. Fiber optics
e. All of the above
64.
What are the three layers in a basic networking structure?
65.
What are the two binary code sequences discussed in the textbook?
 

66.
What are the two types of fiber optic cables discussed in your book?
 
67.
What are the two types of time-division multiplexing described in your book?
a. Synchronous
b. Asynchronous
c. Statistical
d. All of the above
e. A and B
f. A and C
 
68.
What is a binary signal?
 
69.
What is a bus communication topology?
 
70.
What is a converged network?
 
71.
What is a DCE?
a. Another name for a computer's CPU
b. A web-enabled application
c. Any host on a data network
d. A signal conversion device
e. None of the above
 
72.
What is a device that creates, sends, receives, and interprets data messages?
a. Data Terminal Equipment
b. Data Circuit Terminating Equipment
c. Mainframe Terminal Equipment
d. Dumb Terminal Equipment
e. None of the above
 
73.
What is a digital signal?
 
74.
What is an analog signal?
 
75.
What is a signaling rate?
a. The number of bits in a header of a message per frame
b. The number of independent symbols sent per second
c. The number of bytes transferred between a sender and receiver per nanosecond
d. The number of errors per message in a transmission
e. None of the above
 
76.
What is a Star communication topology?
 
77.
What is the difference between the actual signal present at the output of the receiver and the intended signal?
a. Noise
b. Distortion
c. Harmonics
d. Frequency
e. Wavelength
 
78.
What is the DOS command that queries name servers to resolve a given host name?
a. NSLOOKUP
b. IPCONFIG
c. DIR
d. PING
e. TRACERT
f. All of the above
 
79.
What is the formula for Ohm's law?
 
 

80.
What is the maximum speed of a CAT 5e UTP?
a. 10 Mbps
b. 100 Mbps
c. 1000 Mbps
d. None of the above
 
81.
What is the process of adding control information as it passes through the layered model?
a. Decapitation
b. Encapsulation
c. Decapsulation
d. Data mining
e. Polymorphism
 
82.
What is the purpose of the Session layer in the OSI model?
a. Initiates dialogs
b. Keeps dialogs active
c. Restarts idle or disrupted sessions
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
 
83.
What type of cable is not effected by electromagnetic interference (EMI) or radio frequency interference (RFI)?
a. UTP
b. STP
c. Fiber Optic
d. Coaxial
e. None of the above
 
84.
What type of cables are Thicknet (10BASE5), Thinnet (10BASE2)?
a. UTP
b. STP
c. Fiber Optic
d. Coaxial
e. None of the above
 
85.
What type of device is a major data processing device that maintains databases and delivers data files to clients?
a. Terminal
b. Host
c. Client
d. Server
e. Mainframe
f. None of the above
 
86.
What type of multiplexing is involved when a fraction of the bandwidth is assigned so that the channels exist at the same time, on the same bearer, but at different frequencies?
a. Time-division
b. Frequency-division
c. Code-division
d. None of the above
 
87.
What type of multiplexing is involved when the entire bandwidth of the bearer is assigned to each channel so that the signals exist simultaneously on the bearer, and users' messages are differentiated by modulating them with orthogonal codes.
a. Time-division
b. Frequency-division
c. Code-division
d. None of the above
 
88.
What type of signal is present when changes of value are instantaneous and the rate of change at that instant is infinite? At all other times it is zero.
a. Digital
b. Analog
c. Bandwidth
d. Passband
e. None of the above
 
89.
When is one message said to be "richer" than another?
 
90.
Which email server process receives all the inbound mail and places it into the users' mailboxes. It also does virus scanning, spam filtering, and return-receipt handling.
a. MDA
b. MTA
c. MUA
d. All of the above
 
91.
Which of the following are functions of the Presentation Layer in the OSI model?
a. Coding/conversion/translation of data
b. Compression/decompression
c. Encrypting/Decrypting
d. All of the above
 
92.
Which of the following categories of UTP are the most common cables used?
a. Cat 3
b. Cat 5 and 5e
c. Cat 6
d. Cat 7
e. All of the above
 
93.
Which of the following is a fundamental expectation of a network? 

a. Fault tolerance
b. Scalability
c. Quality of Service
d. Security
e. All of the above.
 
 

94.
Which of the following is NOT a bearer as discussed in class?
a. Twisted pair
b. Coaxial
c. Fiber Optic
d. Water
e. Free Space
 
95.
Which of the following is NOT a function of a protocol? 
a. Startup of a communication (who starts and how?)
b. Message format (what sequence and how organized)
c. Identification and framing (how are control characters distinguished from the message?)
d. Content of a message (what is included in the message body?)
e. All of the above are functions of a protocol
 
96.
Which of the following is NOT an Application layer protocol? 
a. DNS
b. HTTP 
c. SMTP 
d. HTML
e. FTP 
f. Telnet 
g. All of the above are Application layer protocols
 
97.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a DTE device?
a. Teletypewriters 
b. video display terminals 
c. transaction terminals 
d. intelligent terminals 
e. PCs 
f. front-end processors
g. all of the above are DTE devices
 
98.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a signal?
a. Music
b. Spoken words
c. Television
d. Data
e. All of the above are examples of signals
 
99.
Which of the following is not a Regional Standards Organization? 

a. European Telecommunications Standards Institute
b. Telecommunication Technology Committee
c. Committ T1-Telecommunications
d. Asia-Pacific Telecommunications Institute
e. All of the above are Regional Standards Organizations
100.
Which of the following is NOT a sector of the ITU?

a. Internet Standardization Sector (ITU-I)
b. Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T)
c. Radiocommunications Sector (ITU-R)
d. Telecommunications Development Sector (ITU-D)
e. All of the above are sectors of the ITU
101.
Which of the following is NOT a type of message that can be sent to a web server?
a. PUT
b. POST
c. SHOW
d. GET
e. All of the above are types of messages that can be sent to web servers
102.
Which of the following is NOT one of the components of speech as described in your textbook?
a. Frequency
b. Phase
c. Amplitude
d. Wavelength
e. All of the above are components of speech
 
 
 
 
 

103.
Which of the following is NOT true in a full-duplex?
a. If equal stations are used, either one can initiate a message.
b. In unequal stations, the primary one manages all messages.
c. It uses Go Back "n" ARQ.
d. The sender stops sending until receiver acknowledges error-free frames at least once in each numbering cycle.
e. All of the above are true in a full-duplex.
 
104.
Which of the following is NOT true of an unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cable?
a. Has 2 or 4 pairs of wires
b. Relies solely on the cancellation effect
c. Most commonly used cabling in networks
d. Have a range of 328 feet (100 meters)
e. All of the above are true
 
105.
Which protocol handles inbound mail delivery?
a. SMTP
b. POP
c. HTTP
d. MDA
e. None of the above
 
 

 

1.
The _______________ assigns port numbers.
 
2.
DHCP enables clients on a network to do which of the following?
 
3.
Each TCP segment has ___________ bytes of overhead in the header encapsulating the application layer data; UDP has _____ bytes of overhead.
 
4.
The ________________ layer provides the segmentation of data and the controls necessary to reassemble these segments into the various communication streams.
 
5.
The __________ number and ____________ number are used together to confirm receipt of the bytes of data contained in the transmitted segments
 
6.
A ______________ protocol is a protocol that keeps track of the state of the communication session.
 
7.
Starting with a sequence number of 2000, if 5 segments of 1000 bytes each were received, an ACK number of ________ would be returned to the source.
 
8.
To identify a target application in a data stream, the transport layer assigns each application an identifier known as a(n) ___________________.
 
9.
The type of addressing used when the network administrator manually enters IP address information on network hosts is called _________ addressing.
 
10.
The UDP PDU s referred to as a ___________________.
 
11.
What is the IPv6 DHCP message that corresponds to the IPv4 DHCPACK message?
 
12.
What is the IPv6 DHCP message that corresponds to the IPv4 DHCPOFFER message?
 
13.
Which of the following applications would be least likely to use UDP?
 
14.
Which of the following is false with respect to FTP?
 
15.
Which of the following is not a common transport layer protocol?
 
16.
Which of the following is not a common transport layer protocol?
 
17.
Which of the following is not a primary responsibility of a transport layer protocol?
18.
Which of the following is not true in a client-server network?
19.
Which of the following port numbers are used by both TCP and UDP?
20.
Which ports are assigned to POP?
21.
Which port(s) is(are) assigned to DNS?
22.
Which port(s) is(are) assigned to FTP?
23.
Which port(s) is(are) assigned to Telnet?
24.
Which protocol is a reliable, connection-oriented protocol used for interactive file transfer between systems?
25.
Which protocol resolves Internet names to IP addresses?
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