BUSI 340 quiz 8 Liberty University complete answers

BUSI 340 quiz 8 Liberty University complete answers

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Which of the following statements is consistent with the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory

What is the significance of artifacts in organizational culture

Which strategy for merging two distinct cultures is most effective when the two companies have relatively weak cultures with overlapping values

Which of the following organizational culture dimension is characterized by competitiveness and a low emphasis on social responsibility

One advantage of countercultures is that they

A deculturation strategy of merging two corporate cultures should be applied

Which of the following is true about socialization agents

The preemployment stage of organizational socialization would be more effective if

_____ are unconscious, taken-for-granted perceptions or ideal prototypes of behavior that are considered the correct way to think and act toward problems and opportunities

Which of the following is a verbal symbol of cultural values

Which of the following is true about mental models

An organization's culture begins with its _____.

Senior executives at a large retail organization want employees to become more customer-friendly. Employees think they are serving customers well enough and the company is the dominant player in the market. What should the executives do to create an urgency to change in this situation

One problem that coaching and other forms of learning have in minimizing resistance to change is that they

One reason the CEO's idea of using an appreciative inquiry approach might be successful is that this approach takes the organization from "what is" to ultimately

Which of the following change management strategies should be given a priority when employees need to break old routines and adopt new role patterns

One problem that communication, learning, and employee involvement have in minimizing resistance to change is that they

According to the Four-D Model, appreciative inquiry begins by

will clearly lose out from the proposed changes and they have enough power to cause the change effort to fail. Assuming that the change effort can proceed slowly and cost is not an issue, the preferred strategy for dealing with this resistance to change is

When managing change, learning interventions should be used

Which of the following statements is true concerning Lewin's Force Field model in the context of changes in other cultures

A major consumer-products company wanted to create a more entrepreneurial and marketing-oriented culture. After failing to bring about the change through middle management, senior executives worked directly with selected teams of front-line employees. These teams, which represented each area of the organization, worked on special projects outside the normal organizational structure. They followed the action research model to produce meaningful organizational change. Which of the following change strategies does this intervention represent?

The positive principle, the constructionist principle, and the simultaneity principle are principles of

What is the role of future search conferences in the process of organizational change

In organizational change, future search conferences are used mainly to

 

Question 1 Which of the following happens during the pre-employment stage of organizational socialization?

Question 2 Which of the following tends to happen when an organization's culture is misaligned with its external environment?

Question 3 One of the first steps to minimize a cultural clash in a merger is to:

Question 4 The pre-employment stage of organizational socialization would be more effective if:

Question 5 What is the significance of artifacts in organizational culture?

Question 6 The themes shared most widely by employees represent:

Question 7 The organizational culture dimension of attention to detail is characterized by _____.

Question 8 When the acquired firm has a weak culture, it is best to use the _____ merger strategy.

Question 9 Organizations that tolerate or encourage subcultures with dissenting values:

Question 10 An individual's beliefs about the terms and conditions of a reciprocal exchange agreement between him or herself and an employer is called a:

Question 11 Which of the following are the observable indicators of organizational culture?

Question 12 Ceremonies are:

Question 13 Information systems are important in the change process because:

Question 14 Telecommco The chief executive of Telecommco, a large telecommunications company, wanted to restructure the organization so product leaders would have more power than the executives in charge of each region. The regional executives tried to prevent this restructuring because it would weaken their power and possibly reduce their salaries in the long term. The product leaders also put up some resistance because they felt that things worked the way they were. The resistance from the product leaders is an example of resistance due to:

Question 15 Resistance to change:

Question 16 Increasing the driving forces and reducing the restraining forces tends to:

Question 17 What is the role of future search conferences in the process of organizational change?

Question 18 Which of these forces are commonly called resistance to change?

Question 19 Employee involvement is almost an essential part of the change process unless the:

Question 20 BusCorp. BusCorp. wants to introduce a new procedure to improve how customer requests are handled. This change will require employees to break old routines and adopt new role patterns. They decide to adopt two new programs, one in which employees learn how to work as teams as the company changes. The other involves forming task forces within the company to help determine new customer service practices. The formation of task forces to minimize resistance to change is known as:

Question 21 Increasing the restraining forces and reducing or removing the driving forces would:

Question 22 Which of the following change management strategies should be given a priority when employees need to break old routines and adopt new role patterns?

Question 23 The _______ principle states that organizations are open books, so we have choices in how they may be perceived, framed, and described.

Question 24 Which of the following organizational change activities adopts a "whole systems" perspective of the change process?

Question 25 XYZ Office Supplies XYZ Office Supplies is about to introduce a new customer service program that will affect all of its 355 sales and service employees. Job duties will be changed and the employee reward system will be altered to fit this new customer focus. Moreover, the company wants to improve the efficiency of work processes, thereby removing some of the comfortable (and often leisurely) routines that employees have followed over the years. Top management is concerned about what types of forces resisting change the company will potentially experience during this change process. Which of the following types of resistance to change might be used by employees at XYZ as a deliberate strategy to ‘prove' that the decision is wrong or that the change agent is incompetent?

 

The best way to determine an organization's shared assumptions is to

Which of the following statements about the strength of organizational culture and organizational performance is true?

When merging two organizations, a separation strategy is most commonly applied when

The main purpose of a bicultural audit is to

Language is

A deculturation strategy of merging two corporate cultures should be applied

Organizational socialization is best described as a process of            where newcomers try to make sense of and adapt to the company's environment

Which of the following is true about mental models

During which of the following stages of socialization do people first learn about the organization and job

Which of these statements about shared assumptions is true

The three stages of organizational socialization, in order, are

A(n)            is a system whereby newcomers are assigned to coworkers for sources of information and social support

Unfreezing refers to

Which of the following is true about organizational change

Which of the following statements is true concerning Lewin's Force Field model in the context of changes in other cultures

Which of the following types of resistance to change is a strategy to "prove" that the decision is wrong or that the change agent is incompetent

A parallel learning structure

ABC Corp selected employees from across the organization to find new ways to serve its customers. The team operated independently of the main organization and experimented with new service delivery approaches. This team is most similar to

Action research is

One way that communication minimizes resistance to change is by

Which model of organization change explicitly refers to unfreezing the current situation and refreezing the desired state

One reason the CEO's idea of using an appreciative inquiry approach might be successful is that this approach takes the organization from "what is" to ultimately

Increasing the restraining forces and reducing or removing the driving forces would

(blank) tries to break out of the problem­solving mentality of traditional change management practices by reframing relationships around the positive and the possible

According to the action research model, the            before diagnosing the need for change

 

1.
According to the force field model, stability occurs when the driving forces and restraining forces are of approximately equal strength in opposite directions. 
 
True    False
 

2.
The force field analysis model states that stability is achieved only when the driving forces for change subside and are replaced by restraining forces acting in the same direction. 
 
True    False
 

3.
Refreezing involves producing disequilibrium between the current state and the future state. 
 
True    False
 

4.
Subtle forms of resistance create the greatest obstacles to change because they are not as visible. 
 
True    False
 

5.
When people support change, they typically assume that it is others who need to change. 
 
True    False
 

6.
An emerging view of employee resistance to change is that it is a dysfunctional and irrational response to a desirable initiative which should be eliminated in modern organizations. 
 
True    False
 

7.
An emerging view of employee resistance to change is that it is a resource rather than an impediment to change in modern organizations. 
 
True    False
 

8.
Resistance worsens procedural justice. 
 
True    False
 

9.
People sometimes resist change to prove that the change agent is incompetent. 
 
True    False
 

10.
Fear of the unknown usually motivates employees to support organizational change. 
 
True    False
 

11.
One reason why employees typically resist change is that they dislike predictable role patterns. 
 
True    False
 

12.
Unfreezing occurs when the driving forces are weaker than the restraining forces. 
 
True    False
 

13.
Unfreezing occurs by making the driving forces stronger, weakening the restraining forces, or a combination of both. 
 
True    False
 

14.
To bring about effective change, leaders must create an urgency to change internally rather than rely on forces outside the organization to create that urgency. 
 
True    False
 

15.
Customer feedback provides a human element that energizes employees to change their current behavior patterns. 
 
True    False
 

16.
The urgency for change must always be initiated from a problem-oriented perspective in order to be effective. 
 
True    False
 

17.
Negotiation and coercion are necessary for people who will clearly gain something from the change and in cases where the speed of change is critical. 
 
True    False
 

18.
Communication should be applied to reduce resistance to change where the change must occur quickly with little financial cost. 
 
True    False
 

19.
You realize that in order to bring about a change in your organization, employees need to break old routines and adopt new role patterns. Stress management strategy is best suited in this situation. 
 
True    False
 

20.
Coaching and other forms of learning reduce resistance to change mainly by helping employees break previous routines and adopting new role patterns. 
 
True    False
 

21.
Unless the change must occur quickly or employee interests are highly incompatible with the organization's needs, employee involvement is almost an essential part of the change process. 
 
True    False
 

22.
One problem with negotiation is that it tends to produce compliance rather than commitment to the change process. 
 
True    False
 

23.
The best way to manage resistance to change among those who will clearly lose out from the change is to introduce coercion practices. 
 
True    False
 

24.
Coercion should never be used to manage change in organizations. 
 
True    False
 

25.
Organizational rewards are powerful systems that refreeze behaviors. 
 
True    False
 

26.
Information systems and reward systems help to refreeze the desired conditions in organizational change. 
 
True    False
 

27.
Transformational leaders act as agents of organizational change. 
 
True    False
 

28.
Pilot projects are usually more flexible and less risky than centralized, organization-wide programs. 
 
True    False
 

29.
Diffusion of change is more likely to succeed if some people who have worked under the new system are moved to other areas of the organization. 
 
True    False
 

30.
Pilot projects get diffused fast when employees are devoid of role perceptions. 
 
True    False
 

31.
Action research is the process of determining whether the change process is ethical or not. 
 
True    False
 

32.
Action research is a problem-focused process of organizational change. 
 
True    False
 

33.
Action research maintains the view that research orientation is less significant compared to action orientation. 
 
True    False
 

34.
Action research adopts the emerging philosophy of positive organizational behavior and directs the group's attention away from its own problems. 
 
True    False
 

35.
Change experts recommend introducing quantum change when the organization wants to overhaul the system quickly and decisively. 
 
True    False
 

36.
A unique feature of appreciative inquiry is that it breaks away from the problem-solving mentality by reframing relationships around what is positive and possible. 
 
True    False
 

37.
Appreciative inquiry tries to break away from the approach to change advocated by action research. 
 
True    False
 

38.
How we perceive and understand the change process depends on the questions we ask and language we use throughout that process. This is called the constructionist principle. 
 
True    False
 

39.
Positive principle advocates the view that people are motivated and guided by the vision they see and believe in for the future. 
 
True    False
 

40.
The first step in the Four-D model of appreciative inquiry is dreaming, in which participants envision what might be possible in an ideal organization. 
 
True    False
 

41.
Future search events minimize resistance to change with little or no involvement from employees. 
 
True    False
 

42.
Future search conferences are meetings among a small task force of senior executives who have been given the mandate to look for a change agent on a particular corporate strategy. 
 
True    False
 

43.
A parallel learning structure is an organizational change approach in which a social structure is constructed alongside the formal hierarchy to increase the organization's learning. 
 
True    False
 

44.
An important feature of parallel learning structures is that they operate within the existing organizational hierarchy. 
 
True    False
 

45.
Using the action research model instead of the other models such as parallel learning structure approach, enables an organization to eliminate the threat of violating individual privacy rights. 
 
True    False
 

46.
Practices such as action research avoid the use of management's power to induce compliance and conformity and is less likely to create ethical issues. 
 
True    False
 

47.
One ethical concern with some organizational change programs is that they may threaten the employee's self-esteem. 
 
True    False
 

48.
The main objective of force field analysis is to help change agents to: 
 



A. 
identify ways to control the external environment.
 

B. 
find ways to increase the driving forces for change.
 

C. 
diagnose the situation better by understanding the driving and restraining forces for change.
 

D. 
determine whether change is necessary in the organization or not.
 

E. 
determine and single out the force that causes organizational resistance for change.
 
 

49.
Which of these forces pushes organizations toward a new state of affairs? 
 



A. 
Process forces
 

B. 
Driving forces
 

C. 
Parallel learning structures
 

D. 
Restraining forces
 

E. 
Vertical learning structures
 
 

50.
Which of these forces are commonly called resistance to change? 
 



A. 
Process forces
 

B. 
Driving forces
 

C. 
Parallel learning structures
 

D. 
Restraining forces
 

E. 
Unfreezing forces
 
 

51.
Which model of organization change explicitly refers to unfreezing the current situation and refreezing the desired state? 
 



A. 
Parallel learning structures
 

B. 
Process consultation
 

C. 
Appreciative inquiry
 

D. 
Quantum change
 

E. 
Force field analysis
 
 

52.
Unfreezing refers to: 
 



A. 
getting one's own way in organizational politics.
 

B. 
wrong management practices that discourage newcomers from staying with the organization.
 

C. 
ensuring that the change effort is diffused to others within the organization.
 

D. 
the process of improving organizational communication.
 

E. 
producing disequilibrium between the driving and restraining forces of change.
 
 

53.
In organizational change, unfreezing may occur by: 
 



A. 
increasing the restraining forces.
 

B. 
increasing the driving forces.
 

C. 
reducing the urgency to change.
 

D. 
changing individuals in key positions.
 

E. 
reducing the pace of the change.
 
 

54.
Increasing the driving forces and reducing the restraining forces tends to: 
 



A. 
reduce the need for change.
 

B. 
unfreeze the status quo.
 

C. 
refreeze the status quo.
 

D. 
decrease environmental stability.
 

E. 
produce environmental equilibrium.
 
 

55.
Refreezing refers to: 
 



A. 
getting one's own way in organizational politics.
 

B. 
a management practice used to discourage newcomers from engaging in organizational politics.
 

C. 
aligning the organization's systems with the desired behaviors to support and reinforce the new role patterns.
 

D. 
repeating the change process to obtain better organizational outcomes and employee performance.
 

E. 
producing disequilibrium between the driving and restraining forces of change.
 
 

56.
The emerging view among change management experts is that resistance to change: 
 



A. 
needs to be seen as a resource.
 

B. 
refers to the fact that employees are happy with the status quo and can perform well only in the status quo.
 

C. 
is the change agents' distorted perception of employee behavior based on their own doubts about the success of the change process.
 

D. 
indicates that change is not required in the organization.
 

E. 
is an impediment to change.
 
 

57.
The chief executive of a large telecommunications company wanted to restructure the organization so product leaders would have more power than the executives in charge of each region. The regional executives tried to prevent this restructuring just because it would weaken their power and reduce their salaries in the long term. This action by the regional executives is mainly an example of resistance due to: 
 



A. 
direct costs.
 

B. 
saving face.
 

C. 
fear of the unknown.
 

D. 
breaking routines.
 

E. 
incongruent organizational systems.
 
 

58.
Which of the following types of resistance to change is a strategy to "prove" that the decision is wrong or that the change agent is incompetent? 
 



A. 
Direct costs
 

B. 
Saving face
 

C. 
Fear of the unknown
 

D. 
Breaking routines
 

E. 
Incongruent organizational systems
 
 

59.
Increasing the restraining forces and reducing or removing the driving forces would: 
 



A. 
make the change process more difficult to implement.
 

B. 
remove any resistance to change.
 

C. 
have no effect on the change process.
 

D. 
give the change agent more power in the change process.
 

E. 
align the organization's systems and structures with the desired behaviors.
 
 

60.
Creating urgency for change is most closely associated with: 
 



A. 
the delivering stage of appreciative inquiry.
 

B. 
the final stage of a search conference.
 

C. 
reducing the restraining forces.
 

D. 
the process of increasing the driving forces.
 

E. 
refreezing the desired conditions.
 
 

61.
Senior executives at a large retail organization want employees to become more customer-friendly. Employees think they are serving customers well enough and the company is the dominant player in the market. What should the executives do to create an urgency to change in this situation? 
 



A. 
Stop trying to convince employees that they should change their behavior and use other strategies to gain market share.
 

B. 
Keep pushing employees to change even though they don't see the need to change and attempt to replace the existing change agent.
 

C. 
Introduce punishments for employees who do not become more customer-friendly.
 

D. 
Inform employees about the driving forces in the external environment indicating that the company's dominant position will be threatened unless they become more customer-friendly.
 

E. 
Introduce a reward-punishment scheme to promote the change in the organization.
 
 

62.
The highest priority and first strategy required for any organizational change is to: 
 



A. 
alter the responsibilities of senior executives in the organization.
 

B. 
introduce stress management counseling to the employees.
 

C. 
train employees who do not possess the skills required under the new conditions.
 

D. 
communicate the need for change and keep employees informed about what they can expect from the change effort.
 

E. 
negotiate a new set of relations among those who will clearly lose out from the change.
 
 

63.
One way that communication minimizes resistance to change is by: 
 



A. 
generating an urgency to change.
 

B. 
encouraging negotiation.
 

C. 
eliminating organizational politics.
 

D. 
promoting speedy refreezing.
 

E. 
encouraging stress management.
 
 

64.
One problem that communication, learning, and employee involvement have in minimizing resistance to change is that they: 
 



A. 
can lead to more subtle forms of resistance.
 

B. 
lead to long-term antagonism with the change agent.
 

C. 
create compliance but not commitment to the change process.
 

D. 
are time-consuming.
 

E. 
are not effective when the change effort needs more employee commitment.
 
 

65.
Which of the following change management strategies should be given a priority when employees need to break old routines and adopt new role patterns? 
 



A. 
Coercion
 

B. 
Employee involvement
 

C. 
Learning
 

D. 
Stress management
 

E. 
Negotiation
 
 

66.
When managing change, learning interventions should be used: 
 



A. 
to break routines that cause resistance to change.
 

B. 
when the organization wants to reduce the cost of implementing change.
 

C. 
when employees resist change due to direct costs.
 

D. 
in all change management activities.
 

E. 
only when all other strategies have failed.
 
 

67.
One problem that coaching and other forms of learning have in minimizing resistance to change is that they: 
 



A. 
tend to change people too quickly.
 

B. 
lead to long-term antagonism with the change agent.
 

C. 
create compliance but not commitment to the change process.
 

D. 
they are time-consuming processes.
 

E. 
attempt to change the drives instead of reducing the restraining forces.
 
 

68.
BusCorp wants to introduce a new procedure for processing customer requests. If this change will require employees to break old routines and adopt new role patterns, the preferred strategy for dealing with resistance to this change such as this is: 
 



A. 
communication.
 

B. 
learning.
 

C. 
stress management.
 

D. 
negotiation.
 

E. 
coercion.
 
 

69.
Employee involvement is almost an essential part of the change process unless the: 
 



A. 
benefits of change are unknown to the employee.
 

B. 
organization is looking for a gradual change.
 

C. 
change must occur quickly in the organization.
 

D. 
employee strength of the organization is huge.
 

E. 
organization is planning to introduce continuous changes.
 
 

70.
Bezel Systems is introducing a few organization-wide changes. A coalition of employees will clearly lose out from the proposed changes and they have enough power to cause the change effort to fail. Assuming that the change effort can proceed slowly and cost is not an issue, the preferred strategy for dealing with this resistance to change is: 
 



A. 
communication.
 

B. 
employee involvement.
 

C. 
stress management.
 

D. 
negotiation.
 

E. 
coercion.
 
 

71.
Which of the following strategies to reduce the restraining forces should be used only if all other strategies fail? 
 



A. 
Coercion
 

B. 
Negotiation
 

C. 
Stress management
 

D. 
Communication
 

E. 
Training
 
 

72.
Change agents should introduce new rewards and information systems to: 
 



A. 
unfreeze the new behavior.
 

B. 
begin the process of appreciative inquiry.
 

C. 
avoid action research.
 

D. 
refreeze the desired conditions.
 

E. 
unfreeze the organizational change.
 
 

73.
_____ leaders are agents of change because they develop an appealing vision of the desired future state, communicate that vision in ways that are meaningful to others, make decisions and act in ways that are consistent with that vision, and build commitment to that vision. 
 



A. 
Operational
 

B. 
Transformational
 

C. 
Charismatic
 

D. 
Collaborative
 

E. 
Transactional
 
 

74.
In the organizational change process, strategic visions: 
 



A. 
could increase or decrease the resistance to change.
 

B. 
should be suppressed as the change process might require an alternate strategy.
 

C. 
could minimize fear of the unknown.
 

D. 
form the second stage of action research.
 

E. 
lead to negotiations between management and employees.
 
 

75.
Which of the following is true about organizational change? 
 



A. 
Change agents work best when they lead the initiative alone.
 

B. 
Groups of people with different degrees of commitment to the change contribute most to the success of public sector organizational change.
 

C. 
Guiding coalitions that lead organizational change are limited to the executive team.
 

D. 
Change occurs more informally through social networks.
 

E. 
Viral change should be avoided in organizations.
 
 

76.
Action research is: 
 



A. 
the theoretical foundation for appreciative inquiry.
 

B. 
a form of team-building activity.
 

C. 
a highly participative process of planned change.
 

D. 
a social structure created alongside the formal organization for the purpose of refreezing the desired conditions.
 

E. 
a process with very high level of people orientation.
 
 

77.
According to the action research model, the _____ before diagnosing the need for change. 
 



A. 
client-consultant relationship needs to be formed
 

B. 
effectiveness of the change effort needs to be evaluated
 

C. 
disengagement of the consultant's services needs to be addressed
 

D. 
change effort needs to stabilize
 

E. 
intervention needs to be introduced
 
 

78.
According to the action research model, which of the following occurs during the "diagnose the need for change" step? 
 



A. 
Analysis of data
 

B. 
Establishment of client-consultant relationship
 

C. 
Determination of the change effectiveness
 

D. 
Establishment of new conditions
 

E. 
Selection of external consultant
 
 

79.
_____ tries to break out of the problem-solving mentality of traditional change management practices by reframing relationships around the positive and the possible. 
 



A. 
Parallel learning structure
 

B. 
Large group intervention
 

C. 
Force field analysis
 

D. 
Action research
 

E. 
Appreciative inquiry
 
 

80.
The positive principle, the constructionist principle, and the simultaneity principle are principles of: 
 



A. 
parallel learning structures.
 

B. 
appreciative inquiry.
 

C. 
action research.
 

D. 
process consultation.
 

E. 
large group interventions.
 
 

81.
The four stages of appreciative inquiry, in order, are: 
 



A. 
problem identification, envisioning, choosing the best solution, and appreciating.
 

B. 
dialogue initiating, innovating, creating, and appreciating.
 

C. 
problem identification, causal analysis, recommended solutions, and choosing the best solution.
 

D. 
discovery, dreaming, designing, and delivering.
 

E. 
problem identification, envisioning, performing, and evaluating.
 
 

82.
According to the Four-D Model, appreciative inquiry begins by: 
 



A. 
determining the cause of the problem.
 

B. 
determining whether there is a problem that needs to be fixed.
 

C. 
involving employees in the process of refreezing.
 

D. 
identifying the positive elements of an organization or work unit that is performing well.
 

E. 
creating a common image among participants of what should be in their own organization.
 
 

83.
In organizational change, future search conferences are used mainly to: 
 



A. 
force employees to accept the changes to be implemented.
 

B. 
involve as many employees and other stakeholders as possible in the change process.
 

C. 
give executives an opportunity to negotiate with employees to accept the changes.
 

D. 
train employees in the skills required for the change process.
 

E. 
refreeze the desired conditions in the organization.
 
 

84.
Which of the following organizational change activities "puts the entire system in the room"? 
 



A. 
Future search conference
 

B. 
Action research
 

C. 
Appreciative inquiry
 

D. 
Force field analysis
 

E. 
Parallel learning structures
 
 

85.
What is the role of future search conferences in the process of organizational change? 
 



A. 
They are an effective form of coercion so that employees agree to abide by the change process.
 

B. 
They mainly select the best person to serve as the change agent for the process.
 

C. 
They build commitment to the change process by involving as many employees as possible.
 

D. 
They interfere with the change process and therefore should be avoided unless the other approaches fail.
 

E. 
They are mainly a forum whereby senior executives can tell employees about their future corporate plans.
 
 

86.
A parallel learning structure: 
 



A. 
is a feature of all organizational change interventions.
 

B. 
includes highly participative teams constructed alongside the formal organizational hierarchy.
 

C. 
exists in organizations where employees are located in two or more buildings.
 

D. 
is mostly comprised of senior management and some professional staff members.
 

E. 
includes a specialized team of experts who possess the necessary skills to monitor the change process.
 
 

87.
A major consumer-products company wanted to create a more entrepreneurial and marketing-oriented culture. After failing to bring about the change through middle management, senior executives worked directly with selected teams of front-line employees. These teams, which represented each area of the organization, worked on special projects outside the normal organizational structure. They followed the action research model to produce meaningful organizational change. Which of the following change strategies does this intervention represent? 
 



A. 
Appreciative inquiry
 

B. 
Process consultation
 

C. 
Parallel learning structures
 

D. 
Sequential intervention
 

E. 
Top-down approach
 
 

88.
ABC Corp selected employees from across the organization to find new ways to serve its customers. The team operated independently of the main organization and experimented with new service delivery approaches. This team is most similar to: 
 



A. 
the sequential approach to organizational change.
 

B. 
a parallel learning structure.
 

C. 
the appreciative inquiry approach to organizational change.
 

D. 
the process of diffusing organizational change.
 

E. 
the process of creating an urgency to change.
 
 

89.
Which of the following statements is true concerning Lewin's Force Field model in the context of changes in other cultures? 
 



A. 
Lewin's model is equally applicable in any cultural setting.
 

B. 
Lewin's model, like the Western perspective on change, views change as linear.
 

C. 
Lewin's model decreases the presence of ethical concerns often associated with change in other cultures.
 

D. 
Lewin's model views change as a harmonious process revolving around an equilibrium.
 

E. 
Lewin's model assumes that change is interconnected.
 
 

90.
The CEO of Trendy Fashions should know that the four stages of appreciative inquiry, in order, are: 
 



A. 
problem identification, envisioning, choosing the best solution, and appreciating.
 

B. 
dialoguing, innovating, creating, and appreciating.
 

C. 
problem identification, causal analysis, recommended solutions, and choosing the best solution.
 

D. 
discovery, dreaming, designing, and delivering.
 

E. 
problem identification, envisioning, performing, and evaluating.
 
 

91.
The CEO will need to know that the first step in his appreciative inquiry change effort will begin with: 
 



A. 
determining the cause of the problem.
 

B. 
determining whether there exists a problem that needs to be fixed.
 

C. 
involving employees in the process of unfreezing.
 

D. 
identifying the positive elements of the organization or work unit that is performing well.
 

E. 
creating a common image among participants of what should be in their own organization.
 
 

92.
One reason the CEO's idea of using an appreciative inquiry approach might be successful is that this approach takes the organization from "what is" to ultimately: 
 



A. 
"what will be."
 

B. 
"what should be."
 

C. 
"what could be."
 

D. 
"what might be."
 

E. 
"what cannot be."
 
 

 

1.
Organizational culture consists of the values and assumptions shared within an organization which also dictates the correct way of thinking about and acting on problems and opportunities facing the organization. 
 
True    False
 

2.
Organizational culture defines what is important and unimportant in the company and consequently directs everyone in the organization toward the "right way" of doing things. 
 
True    False
 

3.
Values represent an important invisible part of an organization's culture. 
 
True    False
 

4.
Implicit mental models are part of an organization's culture. 
 
True    False
 

5.
Espoused values are usually socially undesirable. 
 
True    False
 

6.
Organizational culture consists of espoused values, but not shared enacted values. 
 
True    False
 

7.
An organizations' culture is usually quite blurry, so much so that it cannot be estimated through employee surveys alone. 
 
True    False
 

8.
Most organizational culture models oversimplify the diversity of cultural values in organizations. 
 
True    False
 

9.
Many of the popular organizational culture models and measures oversimplify the variety of organizational cultures and correctly assume that it is relatively easy to fit organizations into these categories. 
 
True    False
 

10.
Subcultures oppose the dominant culture by espousing parallel assumptions and values. 
 
True    False
 

11.
Organizational countercultures further strengthen the organization's dominant culture. 
 
True    False
 

12.
Organizational countercultures can potentially create conflict and dissension among employees. 
 
True    False
 

13.
Organizational countercultures can potentially help the organization maintain its ethical conduct. 
 
True    False
 

14.
Artifacts of organizational culture may include the building's design, the way people are greeted, and the food served in the company's cafeteria. 
 
True    False
 

15.
Artifacts provide valuable evidence about a company's culture. 
 
True    False
 

16.
Rituals support organizational culture by providing social prescriptions of the ways things should or should not be done around the organization. 
 
True    False
 

17.
In order to be effective, organizational stories must describe real people and recount true past events. 
 
True    False
 

18.
Organizational stories are most effective at communicating corporate culture when they describe real people and seem to represent true events. 
 
True    False
 

19.
Organizational stories are the programmed routines of daily organizational life that dramatize an organization's culture. 
 
True    False
 

20.
A ritual would include how visitors are greeted as they enter the company's offices. 
 
True    False
 

21.
Ceremonies are more formal artifacts than rituals. 
 
True    False
 

22.
Language reflects an organization's dominant values but not the values of its subcultures. 
 
True    False
 

23.
An organization's physical structures usually do not reflect or influence its cultural values. 
 
True    False
 

24.
The strength of an organization's culture refers to how widely and deeply employees hold the company's dominant values and assumptions. 
 
True    False
 

25.
One problem with a strong corporate culture is that it increases conflict among employees within the company and makes it more difficult for them to understand each other. 
 
True    False
 

26.
In corporate cults, the culture is so strong that it focuses employees on one mental model so much that they may fail to see issues from different perspectives. 
 
True    False
 

27.
Very strong cultures often become dysfunctional when they encourage dissenting subcultural values. 
 
True    False
 

28.
Organizations with adaptive cultures are unable to maintain a stable value system and consequently tend to perform poorly in the long run. 
 
True    False
 

29.
The first step in a bicultural audit is to identify strategies and prepare action plans to bridge the two organizations' cultures. 
 
True    False
 

30.
When assimilation is compared to other strategies for merging two organizations, it is most likely to result in a culture clash. 
 
True    False
 

31.
The deculturation strategy is most appropriate when the merging companies are in unrelated industries. 
 
True    False
 

32.
Organizational culture can sometimes be reshaped by applying transformational leadership and organizational change practices. 
 
True    False
 

33.
Reward systems have little or no effect on strengthening corporate culture. 
 
True    False
 

34.
The attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory explains why companies are able to attract and select people who fit the culture, but later on have difficulty in creating a stronger culture. 
 
True    False
 

35.
Organizational socialization is the process by which individuals create social norms to interact within the organization. 
 
True    False
 

36.
Organizational socialization begins on the first day of employment and continues throughout one's career within the company. 
 
True    False
 

37.
The main problem with the encounter stage of socialization is that outsiders rely on indirect information about what it is like to work in the organization. 
 
True    False
 

38.
Reality shock occurs when you perceive a discrepancy between your preemployment expectations and on-the-job reality. 
 
True    False
 

39.
Reality shock occurs on or before the first day of work then quickly subsides. 
 
True    False
 

40.
Realistic job previews improve organizational socialization by ensuring that applicants develop more accurate preemployment expectations. 
 
True    False
 

41.
Coworkers are important organizational socialization agents. 
 
True    False
 

42.
_____ are unconscious, taken-for-granted perceptions or ideal prototypes of behavior that are considered the correct way to think and act toward problems and opportunities. 
 



A. 
Values
 

B. 
Organizational artifacts
 

C. 
Languages
 

D. 
Beliefs
 

E. 
Shared assumptions
 
 

43.
Which of these statements about shared assumptions is true? 
 



A. 
They are not taken-for-granted perceptions, but rather conscious decisions.
 

B. 
They are so deeply embedded they probably cannot be discovered by surveying employees.
 

C. 
They are the same as espoused values.
 

D. 
They are revealed through corporate value statements.
 

E. 
They rise to the surface only when employees let them.
 
 

44.
The best way to determine an organization's shared assumptions is to: 
 



A. 
interview executives.
 

B. 
look for evidence of its corporate value statements.
 

C. 
determine what the organization's enacted values are.
 

D. 
read public relations statements produced by the organization.
 

E. 
ask customers to evaluate the company's effectiveness.
 
 

45.
Which of the following organizational culture dimension is characterized by risk taking, and low cautiousness? 
 



A. 
Stability
 

B. 
Innovation
 

C. 
Outcome orientation
 

D. 
Aggressiveness
 

E. 
Respect for people
 
 

46.
The organizational culture dimension of attention to detail is characterized by _____. 
 



A. 
tolerance
 

B. 
fairness
 

C. 
precision
 

D. 
collaboration
 

E. 
security
 
 

47.
Which of the following organizational culture dimension is characterized by competitiveness and a low emphasis on social responsibility? 
 



A. 
Stability
 

B. 
Innovation
 

C. 
Outcome orientation
 

D. 
Aggressiveness
 

E. 
Respect for people
 
 

48.
The themes shared most widely by employees represent: 
 



A. 
the organization's dominant culture.
 

B. 
the organization's deculturation process.
 

C. 
the organization's counterculture.
 

D. 
artifacts held mainly by senior executives in the organization.
 

E. 
rituals prevalent in the organization.
 
 

49.
One advantage of countercultures is that they: 
 



A. 
rarely exist in real organizations.
 

B. 
maintain surveillance over and critique of the company's dominant culture.
 

C. 
prevent organizations from developing a corporate culture.
 

D. 
ensure that corporate mergers occur without any culture clashes.
 

E. 
discourage conflict and dissension among employees.
 
 

50.
One of the functions of _____ is that it is a spawning ground for emerging values that keep the firm aligned with the needs of customers, suppliers, society, and other stakeholders. 
 



A. 
a multicultural organization
 

B. 
a shared value
 

C. 
a subculture
 

D. 
an espoused value
 

E. 
urban culture
 
 

51.
Which of the following are the observable indicators of organizational culture? 
 



A. 
Assumptions
 

B. 
Artifacts
 

C. 
Values
 

D. 
Beliefs
 

E. 
Mental models
 
 

52.
What is the significance of artifacts in organizational culture? 
 



A. 
Artifacts are the same as organizational culture.
 

B. 
Artifacts are the residual parts of the organization that cannot fit into its culture.
 

C. 
Artifacts represent the directly observable symbols and signs of an organization's culture.
 

D. 
Artifacts are the main observable indicators that the organization does not have a culture.
 

E. 
Artifacts mainly reflect the subcultures that conflict with an organization's dominant culture.
 
 

53.
Which of these statements about organizational stories is true? 
 



A. 
Organizational stories are after all stories; and most employees have a hard time believing in them.
 

B. 
Stories communicate organizational culture if they describe positive events, whereas they undermine organizational culture if they describe negative events.
 

C. 
Organizational stories are descriptive, but not prescriptive.
 

D. 
Stories are most effective at communicating corporate culture when they describe real events with real people.
 

E. 
Organizational stories advise people what not to do, but leave out the solutions and suggestions.
 
 

54.
Organizational stories are most effective at communicating organizational culture only when they: 
 



A. 
make employees emotional.
 

B. 
are told by senior executives to the public.
 

C. 
describe real people and are assumed to be true.
 

D. 
are descriptive rather than prescriptive.
 

E. 
tend to pressurize individual performance.
 
 

55.
Rituals are: 
 



A. 
programmed routines of daily organizational life that dramatize the organization's culture.
 

B. 
more formal artifacts than ceremonies.
 

C. 
verbal symbols of cultural values that reveal how employees talk to one another, describe customers, express anger, and greet stakeholders.
 

D. 
physical structures that convey the dominant values of an organization's culture.
 

E. 
games that people play to defy the dominant culture and, instead, support countercultural beliefs and values.
 
 

56.
At meetings of a major consumer products firm, employees habitually stand up when the most senior executive at the meeting enters the room. This practice represents: 
 



A. 
evidence that the meeting has employees who hold countercultural values.
 

B. 
an adaptive culture in the company.
 

C. 
a ritual that probably symbolizes the organization's dominant culture.
 

D. 
a form of deculturation that eventually undermines the organization's dominant culture.
 

E. 
that the company's espoused values differs from its enacted values.
 
 

57.
Ceremonies are: 
 



A. 
programmed routines of daily organizational life that dramatize the organization's culture.
 

B. 
more formal artifacts than ceremonies.
 

C. 
verbal symbols of cultural values that reveal how employees talk to one another, describe customers, express anger, and greet stakeholders.
 

D. 
physical structures that convey the dominant values of an organization's culture.
 

E. 
games that people play to defy the dominant culture and, instead, support countercultural beliefs and values.
 
 

58.
Whenever a team in Ads Today, an advertising firm, wins a new contract, the successful team rings a loud bell and breaks out a bottle of champagne. In organizational culture, this practice would be considered: 
 



A. 
unethical.
 

B. 
a ceremony.
 

C. 
a mental model.
 

D. 
a symptom of a culture that is out of touch with its external environment.
 

E. 
irrelevant to the meaning or study of organizational culture.
 
 

59.
Which of the following is an artifact? 
 



A. 
Values
 

B. 
Language
 

C. 
Assumptions
 

D. 
Beliefs
 

E. 
Corporate cult
 
 

60.
Language is: 
 



A. 
programmed routines of daily organizational life that dramatize the organization's culture.
 

B. 
not good at highlighting the values of organizational subcultures.
 

C. 
verbal symbols of cultural values that reveal how employees describe customers, express anger, and greet stakeholders.
 

D. 
physical structures that convey the dominant values of an organization's culture.
 

E. 
games that people play to defy the dominant culture and, instead, support countercultural beliefs and values.
 
 

61.
Which of the following is a verbal symbol of cultural values? 
 



A. 
Speech at ceremonies
 

B. 
Expression of anger
 

C. 
Shared assumptions
 

D. 
Beliefs
 

E. 
Rituals
 
 

62.
Which of the following is true about organizational culture? 
 



A. 
It is suggested that companies with strong cultures tend to be more successful, irrespective of any conditions.
 

B. 
Companies have strong cultures when the dominant values are held mainly by a few people at the top of the organization.
 

C. 
Most employees across all subunits understand the dominant values but choose to ignore them.
 

D. 
The life span of strong organizational cultures is almost always short.
 

E. 
The strength of an organization's culture refers to how widely and deeply employees hold the company's dominant values and assumptions.
 
 

63.
Which of the following statements about the strength of organizational culture and organizational performance is true? 
 



A. 
Organizations with stronger cultures tend to perform better than those with weak cultures when the culture content fits the external environment.
 

B. 
There is no relationship between an organization's cultural strength and its performance.
 

C. 
Organizations with stronger cultures tend to perform better only when they acquire other organizations with distinct cultures.
 

D. 
Organizations with stronger cultures almost always perform poorly compared to those with weak cultures.
 

E. 
Organizations with stronger cultures perform poorly if they have subcultures.
 
 

64.
Which of the following tends to happen when an organization's culture is misaligned with its external environment? 
 



A. 
The corporate culture gets stronger.
 

B. 
The organization's subcultures weaken.
 

C. 
The organization has more difficulty anticipating and responding to stakeholder needs.
 

D. 
The organization is unable to develop subcultures.
 

E. 
The various subcultures within the organization keep changing.
 
 

65.
Which of the following is true about mental models? 
 



A. 
Mental models usually help to improve organizational effectiveness.
 

B. 
Mental models are one of the artifacts of organizational culture.
 

C. 
Mental models are mainly used to decipher an organization's culture.
 

D. 
Mental models blind employees to new opportunities and unique problems.
 

E. 
Mental models do not have any relationship with organizational culture.
 
 

66.
Organizations that tolerate or encourage subcultures with dissenting values: 
 



A. 
usually go quickly out of business.
 

B. 
usually build stronger cultures to counteract those dissenting values.
 

C. 
may eventually use those dissenting values to build a new set of dominant values in the future.
 

D. 
do not have any corporate culture.
 

E. 
have a very rigid corporate culture.
 
 

67.
Organizations with an adaptive corporate culture: 
 



A. 
are unlikely to survive in the long run.
 

B. 
have a strong sense of ownership.
 

C. 
tend to be less ethical than organizations with non-adaptive cultures.
 

D. 
have no artifacts to keep their culture in place.
 

E. 
are focused inward to employee needs.
 
 

68.
Which of the following is a characteristic of an adaptive corporate culture? 
 



A. 
Employees hold a common mental model that the organization's success depends on their personal wellbeing.
 

B. 
Employees seek out opportunities rather than wait for them to arrive.
 

C. 
Employees tend to be more reactive.
 

D. 
Employees tend to take the view that any activity beyond their job description is not their job.
 

E. 
Employees are more individualistic and do not experiment with new ideas outside their work profiles.
 
 

69.
Employees at SuperTech Services seek out opportunities rather than wait for them to arrive. They also have a strong sense of responsibility for the organization's performance. This implies that SuperTech has: 
 



A. 
a weak organizational culture.
 

B. 
a strong counterculture.
 

C. 
relatively few artifacts representing the organization's culture.
 

D. 
a culture that is misaligned with its external environment.
 

E. 
an adaptive culture.
 
 

70.
The main purpose of a bicultural audit is to: 
 



A. 
determine whether your company's organizational culture is sufficiently strong.
 

B. 
estimate the number of dominant and subcultural values that exist in an organization.
 

C. 
find out whether people from different countries have the same corporate cultures.
 

D. 
identify and diagnose differences in the corporate cultures of merging organizations.
 

E. 
teach new employees the organization's dominant cultural values.
 
 

71.
One of the first steps to minimize a cultural clash in a merger is to: 
 



A. 
significantly reduce the strength of the culture in both the organizations.
 

B. 
conduct a bicultural audit.
 

C. 
significantly increase the strength of the culture in both organizations.
 

D. 
replace the chief executives in both organizations before merger negotiations begin.
 

E. 
replace the employees with new ones.
 
 

72.
When the acquired firm has a weak culture, it is best to use the _____ merger strategy. 
 



A. 
disambiguation
 

B. 
separation
 

C. 
deculturation
 

D. 
assimilation
 

E. 
integration
 
 

73.
_____ occurs when employees at the acquired company willingly embrace the cultural values of the acquiring organization. 
 



A. 
Deculturation
 

B. 
Assimilation
 

C. 
Separation
 

D. 
Integration
 

E. 
Negotiation
 
 

74.
In which strategy does the acquiring company impose its culture and business practices on the acquired organization? 
 



A. 
Deculturation
 

B. 
Assimilation
 

C. 
Separation
 

D. 
Integration
 

E. 
Bicultural audit
 
 

75.
A deculturation strategy of merging two corporate cultures should be applied: 
 



A. 
when employees at the acquired company willingly embrace the cultural values of the acquiring organization.
 

B. 
when both firms operate successfully in different industries.
 

C. 
when employees in the acquired firm want to hold on to their firm's culture even though it does not fit the external environment.
 

D. 
when both the firms have weak cultures.
 

E. 
when the merging companies agree to remain distinct entities with minimal exchange of culture or organizational practices.
 
 

76.
Which strategy for merging two distinct cultures is most effective when the two companies have relatively weak cultures with overlapping values? 
 



A. 
Deculturation
 

B. 
Assimilation
 

C. 
Separation
 

D. 
Integration
 

E. 
Negotiation
 
 

77.
Which of the following is true about using the strategy of integration for merging different corporate cultures? 
 



A. 
It works best when people realize that their existing cultures are good enough, which motivates them to stick to their dominant values.
 

B. 
It is the fastest strategy for merging different corporate cultures.
 

C. 
It is potentially safe because neither party is preserving the existing culture.
 

D. 
It should be considered when the merging companies have strong cultures and distinct cultures.
 

E. 
It creates a new composite culture that preserves the best features of the previous cultures.
 
 

78.
Which strategy for merging two distinct cultures is most appropriate when the two merging companies are in unrelated industries or operate in different countries, because the most appropriate cultural values tend to differ by industry and national culture? 
 



A. 
Deculturation
 

B. 
Assimilation
 

C. 
Separation
 

D. 
Integration
 

E. 
Negotiation
 
 

79.
When merging two organizations, a separation strategy is most commonly applied when: 
 



A. 
both companies have relatively weak cultures that are generally ineffective.
 

B. 
one company has an effective culture and employees at the other company would embrace that culture if applied to them.
 

C. 
the two organizations operate in distinct industries.
 

D. 
the acquired firm's culture doesn't work, whereas the culture of the acquiring firm does work.
 

E. 
a bicultural audit reveals that both companies have very similar cultures.
 
 

80.
An organization's culture begins with its _____. 
 



A. 
clients
 

B. 
country-level managers
 

C. 
employees
 

D. 
founders
 

E. 
auditors
 
 

81.
Which of the following statements is consistent with the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory? 
 



A. 
Job applicants who later become organizational members tend to be attracted to coworkers who share their values and assumptions.
 

B. 
Organizations have a natural tendency to attract, select, and retain people with values that are consistent with the organization's own culture.
 

C. 
Attraction, selection, and attrition are part of the natural life-cycle of organizational members.
 

D. 
Employees get attached to organizations that meet their reward expectations.
 

E. 
Attraction followed by selection inevitably leads to attrition in the future.
 
 

82.
According to the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory, job applicants: 
 



A. 
with a variety of personal characteristics are preferred by organizations, resulting in a more heterogeneous organization.
 

B. 
avoid employment in companies whose values seem incompatible with their own values.
 

C. 
do not typically pay much heed to organizational values when applying for work.
 

D. 
avoid other applicants if they are competing for the same jobs.
 

E. 
are attracted to companies who are likely to provide them with the greatest financial rewards.
 
 

83.
Organizational socialization is best described as a process of _____ where newcomers try to make sense of and adapt to the company's environment. 
 



A. 
cooperation and stability
 

B. 
power and restructuring
 

C. 
negotiation and concession-making
 

D. 
learning and adjustment
 

E. 
managing and delegating
 
 

84.
In the context of organizational socialization, the adjustment process is better for: 
 



A. 
those who rebel against and reject the company's dominant values.
 

B. 
employees who experience significant levels of reality shock.
 

C. 
newcomers with diverse work experience.
 

D. 
people who are able to avoid the encounter stage of socialization.
 

E. 
individuals who retain their personal identity.
 
 

85.
The three stages of organizational socialization, in order, are: 
 



A. 
pre-hire, preemployment, and post-hire.
 

B. 
newcomer, insider, and outsider.
 

C. 
student, employee, and retiree.
 

D. 
preemployment, encounter, and role management.
 

E. 
anticipation, encounter, and disillusionment.
 
 

86.
The process of organizational socialization begins: 
 



A. 
as soon as the person is hired by the organization.
 

B. 
within the employee's first week on the job.
 

C. 
long before the first day of work for the organization.
 

D. 
when the employee finally reconciles preemployment expectations with organizational reality.
 

E. 
when the employee receives his or her first performance appraisal.
 
 

87.
During which of the following stages of socialization do people first learn about the organization and job? 
 



A. 
Role management
 

B. 
Encounter
 

C. 
Preemployment
 

D. 
Annual appraisal
 

E. 
Orientation
 
 

88.
The preemployment stage of organizational socialization would be more effective if: 
 



A. 
employers avoided forming a psychological contract.
 

B. 
employers and job applicants gave and received accurate information about each other.
 

C. 
employers and applicants experienced reality shock when meeting each other for the first time.
 

D. 
job applicants distorted their resume in order to get the job offered.
 

E. 
the applicants kept a clean slate and avoided searching for information on the company and forming expectations.
 
 

89.
Which of the following happens during the preemployment stage of organizational socialization? 
 



A. 
Conflicts are resolved between work and nonwork activities.
 

B. 
Employees form expectations (a psychological contract) about working at that organization.
 

C. 
Reality shock is experienced.
 

D. 
Newcomers test how well their preemployment expectations fit reality.
 

E. 
Applicants strengthen relationships with coworkers and supervisors, practice new role behaviors, and adopt attitudes and values consistent with their new positions and the organization.
 
 

90.
Many employees get a reality shock on their first day at work because: 
 



A. 
applicants want employees to develop better expectations of future work experiences.
 

B. 
applicants want to ensure that employees develop a stronger loyalty to the organization.
 

C. 
newcomers test how well their preemployment expectations fit reality and many companies fail this test.
 

D. 
employers ignore the duty to orient new applicants on the first day of work.
 

E. 
colleagues provide a lot of information regarding various work assignments on the very first day.
 
 

91.
Reality shock is: 
 



A. 
provided by organizations to ensure that new employees accept the challenges at work.
 

B. 
an element in the model of individual behavior.
 

C. 
common in lateral career development.
 

D. 
a unique feature of an adaptive culture.
 

E. 
a perceived discrepancy between employee expectations and reality.
 
 

92.
_____ is the third stage of organizational socialization that is most active as employees make the transition from newcomers to insiders. 
 



A. 
Role management
 

B. 
Preemployment socialization
 

C. 
Encounter
 

D. 
Gathering information
 

E. 
Job interview
 
 

93.
Resolving conflicts between work and nonwork mainly occurs during the _____ stage of socialization. 
 



A. 
role management
 

B. 
encounter
 

C. 
preemployment
 

D. 
reality shock
 

E. 
disillusionment
 
 

94.
Which of the following is true about socialization agents? 
 



A. 
Socialization agents help integrate new employees into the team.
 

B. 
Socialization agents provide support on the basis of the compensation offered to do so.
 

C. 
Family support is an important socialization agent for new employees.
 

D. 
A strong corporate culture discourages socialization agents from doing their job.
 

E. 
Employers group socialization agents on the basis of their qualifications.
 
 

95.
A(n) _____ is a system whereby newcomers are assigned to coworkers for sources of information and social support. 
 



A. 
two-man rule
 

B. 
work ownership
 

C. 
duty segregation
 

D. 
inspection partnership
 

E. 
buddy system
 
 

96.
James has just joined CoraTech Systems, where he has been assigned to Paul and Natalie for sources of information about the company. Paul and Natalie introduce James to others at Coratech, give him an office tour, and assure him that they will meet him regularly for the first few weeks, to help him in the transition to the new company. In this scenario, Paul and Natalie are part of the CoraTech's _____. 
 



A. 
two-man rule
 

B. 
work ownership
 

C. 
buddy system
 

D. 
inspection partnership
 

E. 
duty segregation
 
 

1. Groups are considered teams only when:

A. they operate without any supervisor.

B. everyone in the department has the same set of skills.

C. employees directly interact with each other and coordinate work activities.

D. all employees are located in the same physical area.

E. most of the employees have the same level of motivation to accomplish goals.

2. A task force refers to any:

A. informal group that has the same members as the permanent task-oriented group.

B. formal group whose members work permanently and spend most of their time in that team.

C. formal group whose members must be able to perform all of the tasks of the team.

D. temporary team that investigates a particular problem and typically disbands when the decision is made.

E. temporary team that has members in different locations who depend on information technologies to

communicate and coordinate their work effort.

3. Informal groups:

A. are initiated by the organization for special purposes.

B. exist primarily for the benefit of their members.

C. perform routine organizational goals.

D. always have a high level of interdependence.

E. perform uncommon tasks of the organization.

4. Synergie Inc. formed a team to improve revenues for its service stations along major highways in Malaysia.

This team, which included a service station manager, a truck driver, and four or five marketing executives,

disbanded after it had reviewed the Malaysian service stations and submitted a business plan. This team is

called a(n):

A. skunkworks.

B. bootleg group.

C. informal group.

D. community of practice.

E. task force.

5. Which of the following types of teams are best known for having a champion who uses bootlegging to

develop new products, services, or procedures?

A. Skunkworks

B. Communities of practice

C. Task forces

D. Informal groups

E. Production teams

6. _____ provides an explanation of why people belong to informal groups.

A. Need to defend

B. Social identity theory

C. Confirmation bias

D. Social loafing

E. Cognitive dissonance

7. According to social identity theory:

A. teams are never as productive as individuals working alone.

B. the most effective teams have a large number of members.

C. the team development process occurs more rapidly for heterogeneous teams than for homogeneous teams.

D. people define themselves by their group affiliations.

E. teams are less productive in performing complex tasks.

8. The drive to bond and the dynamics of social identity theory both explain why people:

A. join informal groups.

B. tend to ignore team norms whenever possible.

C. have difficulty feeling cohesive in teams.

D. engage in social loafing.

E. work better alone than in teams.

9. Fellow team members often monitor performance more closely than a traditional supervisor. This is

particularly true where the team's performance depends on:

A. technological factors.

B. the special efforts of members.

C. certain skills of members.

D. the aptitudes of members.

E. the worst performer in the group.

10. In team dynamics, process losses are best described as:

A. productivity losses that occur when individual members need to learn a new task.

B. information lost due to imperfect communication among team members.

C. resources expended towards team development and maintenance.

D. knowledge lost when a team member leaves the organization.

E. knowledge lost when tacit knowledge is converted to structural knowledge.

11. Brooks's Law says that adding more people to a late software project only makes it later. This law is mainly

referring to:

A. the lack of team cohesiveness.

B. the existence of process losses.

C. excessive team norms.

D. an unfriendly team environment.

E. the formation of informal teams.

12. Social loafing occurs:

A. more in smaller rather than larger teams.

B. more when the task is boring than when it is interesting.

C. more in tasks with high interdependence.

D. more when employees believe the team's objective is important.

E. more among employees with collectivist rather than individualistic values.

13. Keeping the team size sufficiently small and designing tasks such that each team member's performance is

measurable are two ways to:

A. minimize team cohesiveness.

B. add more roles to the team.

C. increase the risk of forming dysfunctional norms.

D. minimize social loafing.

E. minimize the process losses.

14. The phenomenon that occurs when people exert less effort when working in groups than when working

alone is referred to as _____.

A. team cohesiveness

B. social identity

C. pooled interdependence

D. team conformity

E. social loafing

15. Which of the following is not a factor that favors effective team behavior?

A. Individual rewards for contributions to the team

B. Information systems that support the team

C. Close physical layout of team members

D. Leadership that supports team behavior and structures

E. Distinctive clusters of work assigned to the team

16. Which of the following types of task interdependence exists among production employees working on

assembly lines?

A. Sequential interdependence

B. Total independence

C. Reciprocal interdependence

D. Pooled interdependence

E. Alternate interdependence

17. Two company divisions produce completely different products but must seek funding from head office for a

capital expansion project. The relationship between these two divisions would be best described as:

A. total interdependence.

B. sequential interdependence.

C. reciprocal interdependence.

D. anticipatory interdependence.

E. pooled interdependence.

18. Pooled interdependence is:

A. essential for team effectiveness.

B. the same as reciprocal interdependence.

C. stronger than sequential interdependence.

D. the best way to avoid social loafing.

E. is the lowest level of interdependence.

19. Employees with _____, in which work output is exchanged back and forth among individuals, should be

organized into teams to facilitate coordination in their interwoven relationship.

A. pooled interdependence

B. reciprocal interdependence

C. counterproductive norms

D. high levels of social loafing

E. a very high level of heterogeneity

20. Which of the following competencies would primarily assist team maintenance?

A. Cooperating

B. Coordinating

C. Communicating

D. Comforting

E. Concentrating

21. Which are the task-related characteristics in the "five C's" of effective member behaviors?

A. Comforting and communicating

B. Cooperating and conflict resolving

C. Coordinating and communicating

D. Conflict resolving and coordinating

E. Comforting and cooperating

22. "Fault lines" are more likely to occur when teams:

A. have very few members.

B. are involved in sequential interdependence.

C. engage in participative management.

D. are highly interdependent.

E. are diverse.

23. Teams with strong fault lines:

A. experience more dysfunctional conflict within the team.

B. proceed more quickly through the team development process.

C. have team members with similar demographic and professional backgrounds.

D. have very few members in the team.

E. have better interpersonal relations.

24. A diverse team is better than a homogeneous team:

A. when designing and launching a new product or service.

B. on tasks requiring a high degree of cooperation.

C. in situations where the team must reach the performing stage of team development quickly.

D. in most organizational activities as they will have fewer conflicts.

E. if the team is working on a project that involves routine tasks.

25. Which of the following generally occurs during the storming stage of team development?

A. Members learn about each other and evaluate the benefits and costs of continued membership.

B. Members shift their attention away from task orientation to a socio-emotional focus as they realize their

relationship is coming to an end.

C. Members learn to coordinate their actions and become more task-oriented.

D. Members develop their first real sense of cohesion and, through disclosure and feedback, make an effort to

understand and accept each other.

E. Members try to establish norms of appropriate behavior and performance standards.

26. During the _____ stage of team development, team members shift their attention away from task orientation

to a relationship focus.

A. forming

B. storming

C. norming

D. adjourning

E. performing

27. A role is a set of behaviors that people are expected to perform because:

A. they need to present a certain image in their organization.

B. they hold certain positions in a team and organization.

C. of certain aptitudes and tastes that they possess.

D. of the nature and type of the team environment.

E. of the interpersonal conflicts in the team.

28. Which of the following is a major problem associated with team building activities?

A. They cannot be used to clarify the team's performance goals.

B. They do not focus on improving relations among team members.

C. Team building consists of informal activities rather than formal activities.

D. Team building attempts slow down the team development process.

E. They are used as general solutions rather than specific solutions.

29. How do norms affect the behavior of team members?

A. They encourage members to try new behaviors not previously sanctioned by the team.

B. They encourage the members to think out of the box and provide innovative solutions.

C. They help the team regulate and guide the behaviors of its members.

D. They help the team move from the forming to storming stages of team development.

E. They enable team members to have complete autonomy in their functioning.

30. If a dysfunctional norm is very deeply ingrained in a team, the best strategy is probably to:

A. tell the group that corporate leaders are willing to tolerate the dysfunctional norm.

B. disband the group and replace it with people having more favorable norms.

C. supplement the existing group with one or two people having more favorable norms.

D. introduce rewards that support the dysfunctional norm.

E. provide direct reinforcement and punishment to the employees.

31. Team cohesiveness tends to be higher when:

A. the team is large and established.

B. when entry into the team is difficult.

C. when the team has distinct fault lines.

D. when members have limited interaction.

E. external competition is limited.

32. When compared to people in low-cohesion teams, members of high-cohesion teams:

A. are less motivated to maintain their membership.

B. resolve conflicts swiftly and effectively.

C. are less sensitive to each other's needs.

D. are less likely to share information with each other.

E. have external locus of control.

33. High-cohesion teams perform poorer than low-cohesion teams when:

A. the team faces external competition.

B. the team has more than fifteen members.

C. the team leader has less knowledge and skills than the team members.

D. team norms undermine the organization's performance.

E. teams have tight deadlines.

34. Calculus, knowledge and identification are the three:

A. stages of team development.

B. ways to improve team cohesiveness.

C. foundations of trust in teams.

D. types of psychological contract.

E. stages of conflict among team members.

35. Which of the following is true about calculus-based trust?

A. It is the lowest potential trust in organizations.

B. It can sustain a team's relationship by itself.

C. It is mainly based on the other party's predictability.

D. It occurs when one party thinks, feels, and responds like the other party.

E. It is based on the knowledge of the other member's behavior.

36. Which of the following foundations of trust is determined mainly by the other party's predictability?

A. Calculus-based

B. Identification-based

C. Knowledge-based

D. Relational

E. Transactional

37. Liam works in a team of four other accounting professionals within a company. Liam doesn't particularly

agree with many of his teammates' ideas, such as leaving work early and failing to double-check some account

entries. However, he works comfortably with the group because their behavior and decisions are predictable.

What foundation of trust does Liam have in this team?

A. Calculus-based

B. Identification-based

C. Knowledge-based

D. Cooperative

E. Collaborative

38. Self-directed teams:

A. are informal groups that exist in an organization.

B. usually exist as communities of practice.

C. consist of a group of employees who are subject to methodical supervision.

D. have substantial autonomy over the execution of a complete task.

E. have reduced member-interdependence compared to other teams.

39. Which of the following are described as virtual teams?

A. Groups of employees who are almost (virtually) identical to each other in skills and values.

B. Cross-functional groups of employees that operate across space, time and organizational boundaries.

C. Formal work teams in which most members do not feel that they are really part of the team.

D. Informal groups that meet only in cyberspace.

E. Groups of employees from different departments who are located near each other.

40. Which of the following are two features that distinguish virtual teams from conventional teams?

A. Size and heterogeneity

B. Lack of co-location and dependence on information technology

C. Joint optimization and primary work unit

D. Norms and trust

E. Size and homogeneity of the team

41. Which of the following is true about virtual teams?

A. People trust team members on virtual teams more easily than on face-to-face teams.

B. Cultural differences between group members can be easily overcome.

C. Virtual teams help organizational learning and globalization.

D. Surveys report higher levels of satisfaction with virtual team members than co-located team members.

E. conflict is more easily resolved in virtual teams.

42. Which of the following is not a skill or characteristic required of virtual team members?

A. Higher emotional intelligence

B. Good communication technology skills

C. Strong self-leadership skills

D. Extraverted personalities

E. Good conflict resolution skills

43. To manage virtual teams effectively, organizations should:

A. provide documented work processes and clear objectives.

B. specify the communication technology that the teams should use.

C. avoid face-to-face contact between team members.

D. use virtual teams only for long-term projects.

E. monitor the progress of virtual teams closely and intervene quickly when problems arise.

44. Production blocking and evaluation apprehension:

A. improve the creative process in teams.

B. help teams to avoid excessive conformity pressure.

C. are two ways to overcome group polarization in a team.

D. reduce the discipline of a team in group meetings.

E. hinder organizational decision making in teams.

45. Which of the following statements about evaluation apprehension in team settings is true?

A. Evaluation apprehension increases with the individual's motivation to share his or her ideas.

B. Evaluation apprehension is more likely to occur when team members formally evaluate each other's

performance throughout the year.

C. Evaluation apprehension motivates team members to generate creative solutions, no matter how silly they

may sound.

D. Evaluation apprehension tends to affect the discipline and functioning of team meetings.

E. Evaluation apprehension can be extremely productive if the leader is skillful and charismatic.

46. The degree to which team members have collective confidence in how well they work together and the

likely success of their team effort is called:

A. team efficacy.

B. self-efficacy.

C. cohesion.

D. conformity.

E. team production.

47. Team efficacy can cause team members to be _____ their decisions.

A. uncomfortable with

B. confused about

C. hesitant and doubtful about

D. more aware of the characteristics of

E. overconfident in

48. Which of the following is not one of the effects of team efficacy?

A. Teams set more challenging goals.

B. Teams are more motivated to achieve goals.

C. Teams feel invulnerable.

D. Teams have more positive moods.

E. Teams engage in more conflict.

49. Brainstorming requires team members to:

A. openly criticize each other's ideas.

B. avoid presenting ideas that seem silly.

C. provide as many ideas as possible.

D. present only feasible ideas in discussions.

E. use formal norms of discussion.

50. In which decision-making structure do participants typically meet, but only interact with each other during

two of the three steps of the process?

A. Delphi method

B. Nominal group technique

C. Brainstorming

D. Constructive conflict

E. Electronic brainstorming

51. GHI Inc.

Lorraine has worked at GHI Inc. for 14 years. GHI has a large building where each divisional unit is located on

a different floor. Lorraine works on the accounting floor and belongs to the budget committee, where she met

Sally from Engineering and Jonas from Receiving. This committee provides recommendations to upper

management on various financial issues affecting the company. Each week, the three meet after work on

Thursdays to play darts at a local pub.

Lorraine works in the unit in Accounting that handles Accounts Receivable. What type of team is this most

likely to be?

A. Leadership team

B. Self-directed team

C. Virtual team

D. Task force team

E. Departmental team

52. GHI Inc.

Lorraine has worked at GHI Inc. for 14 years. GHI has a large building where each divisional unit is located on

a different floor. Lorraine works on the accounting floor and belongs to the budget committee, where she met

Sally from Engineering and Jonas from Receiving. This committee provides recommendations to upper

management on various financial issues affecting the company. Each week, the three meet after work on

Thursdays to play darts at a local pub.

The budget committee is an example of a(n):

A. leadership team.

B. self-directed team.

C. advisory team.

D. task force team.

E. community of practice.

53. GHI Inc.

Lorraine has worked at GHI Inc. for 14 years. GHI has a large building where each divisional unit is located on

a different floor. Lorraine works on the accounting floor and belongs to the budget committee, where she met

Sally from Engineering and Jonas from Receiving. This committee provides recommendations to upper

management on various financial issues affecting the company. Each week, the three meet after work on

Thursdays to play darts at a local pub.

The three meeting after work to play darts is an example of a(n):

A. community of practice.

B. self-directed team.

C. informal group.

D. skunkworks.

E. advisory team.

54. Barry's Software Development Team

Barry was assigned recently to a large team working on a major software release that was taking longer than

expected. Barry and the other latecomers into the project spent a month partnered with a senior programmer

who went over the project in detail with them and got them up to speed. Unfortunately, this training put the

project even farther behind schedule. After a few months of working on the project with so many other

programmers, Barry's work output becomes noticeably lower than it was before when he was working

independently.

The loss of work time on the project because of the training is known as:

A. process gain.

B. the cost of doing business.

C. Brook's law.

D. mythical man-hours.

E. immeasurable results.

55. Barry's Software Development Team

Barry was assigned recently to a large team working on a major software release that was taking longer than

expected. Barry and the other latecomers into the project spent a month partnered with a senior programmer

who went over the project in detail with them and got them up to speed. Unfortunately, this training put the

project even farther behind schedule. After a few months of working on the project with so many other

programmers, Barry's work output becomes noticeably lower than it was before when he was working

independently.

Barry's reduced work output is most likely due to:

A. a lack of knowledge.

B. job dissatisfaction.

C. a hostile work environment.

D. social loafing.

E. lack of proper supervision.

56. Sunshine Manufacturing

Jafina works for a Sunshine Manufacturing, where her team shares a machine and materials with another team

that works a different shift. Each team is responsible for ensuring that the machine is in working order and the

work area is fully stocked before handing it over to the other team at shift change. While working, Jafina begins

the manufacturing process, then passes her work along to her teammate, Georgia, to complete the next step of

the process. After this, Georgia passes it along to Jeremy to complete the process.

The two teams sharing a work space and machine is known as:

A. reciprocal interdependence.

B. sequential interdependence.

C. complete interdependence.

D. pooled interdependence.

E. collective interdependence.

57. Sunshine Manufacturing

Jafina works for a Sunshine Manufacturing, where her team shares a machine and materials with another team

that works a different shift. Each team is responsible for ensuring that the machine is in working order and the

work area is fully stocked before handing it over to the other team at shift change. While working, Jafina begins

the manufacturing process, then passes her work along to her teammate, Georgia, to complete the next step of

the process. After this, Georgia passes it along to Jeremy to complete the process.

The way Jafina's team functions is known as:

A. reciprocal interdependence.

B. sequential interdependence.

C. complete interdependence.

D. pooled interdependence.

E. collective interdependence.

58. The Research and Development Team

Janet works on a team of 15 people working in research and development for a toymaker. They have weekly

meetings to discuss new toy ideas. Occasionally, Janet will have a good idea that she wishes to discuss, but it

takes too long for all her other teammates to finish talking that she will often just not bother to bring it up.

Occasionally, there are arguments about which new project should have the most resources devoted to it, but

Janet finds her coworkers always maintain respect for each other and work out a solution.

Janet's problem getting her ideas out in meetings is a problem known as:

A. groupthink.

B. evaluation apprehension.

C. team syndrome.

D. production blocking.

E. intentional sabotage.

59. The Research and Development Team

Janet works on a team of 15 people working in research and development for a toymaker. They have weekly

meetings to discuss new toy ideas. Occasionally, Janet will have a good idea that she wishes to discuss, but it

takes too long for all her other teammates to finish talking that she will often just not bother to bring it up.

Occasionally, there are arguments about which new project should have the most resources devoted to it, but

Janet finds her coworkers always maintain respect for each other and work out a solution.

What type of meetings are these known as?

A. Brainstorming

B. Cross-functional

C. Nominal

D. Constructive

E. Innovation

60. Effective communication occurs when:

A. information is sent through informal rather than formal channels.

B. information is collected from various sources but sent to a limited audience.

C. the sender convinces the receiver to accept the information sent.

D. information is transmitted and understood between two or more people.

E. the sender transmits information that is received by someone other than the intended receiver.

61. _____ refers to the process by which information is transmitted and understood between two or more

people.

A. Communication

B. Jargon

C. Flaming

D. Grapevine

E. MBWA

62. Which of the following fundamental drives is highly influenced by effective communication?

A. Drive to succeed

B. Drive to defend

C. Drive to bond

D. Drive to acquire

E. Drive to achieve

63. Which of the following represents the first step in the communication model?

A. Form message

B. Encode message

C. Decode message

D. Transmit message

E. Form feedback

64. According to the communication process model:

A. information flows through channels between the sender and receiver.

B. the sender and receiver are at different levels and communicate only when the levels match.

C. communication is a free-flowing conduit.

D. information transmission is minimal in a formal communicative process.

E. the sender is the dominant and more important partner.

65. Which of the following represents the first three steps in the communication model in the correct order?

A. Decode message, encode message, and provide feedback

B. Form message, transmit message, and decode message

C. Encode message, transmit message, and receive message

D. Form message, transmit message, and receive message

E. Form message, encode message, and transmit message

66. Unfreezing refers to:

A. getting one's own way in organizational politics.

B. ineffective management practices that discourage newcomers from staying with the organization.

C. ensuring that the change effort is diffused to others within the organization.

D. the process of improving organizational communication.

E. producing disequilibrium between the driving and restraining forces of change.

67. In organizational change, unfreezing may occur by:

A. increasing the restraining forces.

B. increasing the driving forces.

C. reducing the urgency to change.

D. changing individuals in key positions.

E. reducing the pace of the change.

68. Increasing the driving forces and reducing the restraining forces tends to:

A. reduce the need for change.

B. unfreeze the status quo.

C. refreeze the status quo.

D. decrease environmental stability.

E. produce environmental equilibrium.

69. Refreezing refers to:

A. getting one's own way in organizational politics.

B. a management practice used to discourage newcomers from engaging in organizational politics.

C. aligning the organization's systems with the desired behaviors to support and reinforce the new role patterns.

D. repeating the change process to obtain better organizational outcomes and employee performance.

E. producing disequilibrium between the driving and restraining forces of change.

70. Resistance to change:

A. should be viewed as task conflict.

B. refers to the fact that employees are happy with the status quo and can perform well only in the status quo.

C. is the change agents' distorted perception of employee behavior based on their own doubts about the success

of the change process.

D. indicates that change is not required in the organization.

E. is an impediment to change.

71. Increasing the restraining forces and reducing or removing the driving forces would:

A. make the change process more difficult to implement.

B. remove any resistance to change.

C. have no effect on the change process.

D. give the change agent more power in the change process.

E. align the organization's systems and structures with the desired behaviors.

72. Creating urgency for change is most closely associated with:

A. the delivering stage of appreciative inquiry.

B. the final stage of a search conference.

C. reducing the restraining forces.

D. the process of increasing the driving forces.

E. refreezing the desired conditions.

73. Senior executives at a large retail organization want employees to become more customer-friendly.

Employees think they are serving customers well enough and the company is the dominant player in the market.

What should the executives do to create an urgency to change in this situation?

A. Stop trying to convince employees that they should change their behavior and use other strategies to gain

market share.

B. Keep pushing employees to change even though they don't see the need to change and attempt to replace the

existing change agent.

C. Introduce punishments for employees who do not become more customer-friendly.

D. Inform employees about the driving forces in the external environment indicating that the company's

dominant position will be threatened unless they become more customer-friendly.

E. Introduce a reward-punishment scheme to promote the change in the organization.

74. The highest priority and first strategy required for any organizational change is to:

A. alter the responsibilities of senior executives in the organization.

B. introduce stress management counseling to the employees.

C. train employees who do not possess the skills required under the new conditions.

D. communicate the need for change and keep employees informed about what they can expect from the change

effort.

E. negotiate a new set of relations among those who will clearly lose out from the change.

75. One way that communication minimizes resistance to change is by:

A. generating an urgency to change.

B. encouraging negotiation.

C. eliminating organizational politics.

D. promoting speedy refreezing.

E. encouraging stress management.

76. One problem that communication, learning, and employee involvement have in minimizing resistance to

change is that they:

A. can lead to more subtle forms of resistance.

B. lead to long-term antagonism with the change agent.

C. create compliance but not commitment to the change process.

D. are time-consuming.

E. are not effective when the change effort needs more employee commitment.

77. Which of the following change management strategies should be given a priority when employees need to

break old routines and adopt new role patterns?

A. Coercion

B. Employee involvement

C. Learning

D. Stress management

E. Negotiation

78. When managing change, learning interventions should be used:

A. to break routines that cause resistance to change.

B. when the organization wants to reduce the cost of implementing change.

C. when employees resist change due to negative valence of change.

D. in all change management activities.

E. only when all other strategies have failed.

79. One problem of the learning strategy has in minimizing resistance to change is that it:

A. tends to change people too quickly.

B. leads to long-term antagonism with the change agent.

C. creates compliance but not commitment to the change process.

D. is a time-consuming process.

E. attempts to change the drives instead of reducing the restraining forces.

80. BusCorp. wants to introduce a new procedure for processing customer requests. If this change will require

employees to break old routines and adopt new role patterns, the preferred strategy for dealing with resistance to

this change such as this is:

A. communication.

B. learning.

C. stress management.

D. negotiation.

E. coercion.

81. By creating ________, employee involvement reduces the fear of the unknown and the not-invented-here

syndrome.

A. stress

B. a sense of entitlement

C. a sense of ownership

D. a goal

E. transformation

82. Employee involvement is almost an essential part of the change process unless the:

A. benefits of change are unknown to the employee.

B. organization is looking for a gradual change.

C. change must occur quickly in the organization.

D. employee strength of the organization is huge.

E. organization is planning to introduce continuous changes.

83. Bezel Systems is introducing a few organization-wide changes. A coalition of employees will clearly lose

out from the proposed changes and they have enough power to cause the change effort to fail. Assuming that the

change effort can proceed slowly and cost is not an issue, the preferred strategy for dealing with this resistance

to change is:

A. communication.

B. employee involvement.

C. stress management.

D. negotiation.

E. coercion.

84. Which of the following strategies to reduce the restraining forces should be used only if all other strategies

fail?

A. Coercion

B. Negotiation

C. Stress management

D. Communication

E. Training

85. Change agents should introduce new rewards and information systems to:

A. unfreeze the new behavior.

B. begin the process of appreciative inquiry.

C. avoid action research.

D. refreeze the desired conditions.

E. unfreeze the organizational change.

86. Information systems are important in the change process because:

A. they act as conduits for feedback.

B. they generally raise stress levels.

C. they create fear of the unknown.

D. they contradict the reward systems.

E. they increase the risk of coercive tactics.

87. _____ leaders are agents of change because they develop an appealing vision of the desired future state,

communicate that vision in ways that are meaningful to others, make decisions and act in ways that are

consistent with that vision, and build commitment to that vision.

A. Operational

B. Transformational

C. Charismatic

D. Collaborative

E. Transactional

88. Which of the following is true about organizational change?

A. Change agents work best when they lead the initiative alone.

B. Groups of people with different degrees of commitment to the change contribute most to the success of

public sector organizational change.

C. Guiding coalitions that lead organizational change are limited to the executive team.

D. Change occurs more informally through social networks.

E. Viral change should be avoided in organizations.

89. Action research is:

A. the theoretical foundation for appreciative inquiry.

B. a form of team-building activity.

C. a highly participative process of planned change.

D. a social structure created alongside the formal organization for the purpose of refreezing the desired

conditions.

E. a process with very high level of people orientation.

90. According to the action research model, the _____ before diagnosing the need for change.

A. client-consultant relationship needs to be formed

B. effectiveness of the change effort needs to be evaluated

C. disengagement of the consultant's services needs to be addressed

D. change effort needs to stabilize

E. intervention needs to be introduced

91. According to the action research model, which of the following occurs during the "diagnose need for

change" step?

A. Analysis of data

B. Establishment of client-consultant relationship

C. Determination of the change effectiveness

D. Establishment of new conditions

E. Selection of external consultant

92. Which organizational change approach is best known for its affirmation rather than problem-solving

approach to change?

A. Parallel learning structure

B. Large group intervention

C. Force field analysis

D. Action research

E. Appreciative inquiry

93. The positive principle, the constructionist principle, and the simultaneity principle are principles of:

A. parallel learning structures.

B. appreciative inquiry.

C. action research.

D. process consultation.

E. large group interventions.

94. The _________ principle takes the position that conversations don't describe reality; they shape that reality.

A. positive

B. constructionist

C. poetic

D. anticipatory

E. simultaneity

95. The _______ principle states that organizations are open books, so we have choices in how they may be

perceived, framed, and described.

A. positive

B. constructionist

C. poetic

D. anticipatory

E. simultaneity

96. The anticipatory principle emphasizes that:

A. conversations don't describe reality; they shape that reality.

B. inquiry and change are simultaneous.

C. organizations are open books.

D. people are motivated and guided by the vision they see and believe in.

E. focusing on the positive will improve success and well-being.

97. The four stages of appreciative inquiry, in order, are:

A. problem identification, envisioning, choosing the best solution, and appreciating.

B. initiating dialogue, innovating, creating, and appreciating.

C. problem identification, causal analysis, recommended solutions, and choosing the best solution.

D. discovery, dreaming, designing, and delivering.

E. problem identification, envisioning, performing, and evaluating.

98. According to the Four-D Model, appreciative inquiry begins by:

A. determining the cause of the problem.

B. determining whether there is a problem that needs to be fixed.

C. involving employees in the process of refreezing.

D. identifying the positive elements of an organization or work unit that is performing well.

E. creating a common image among participants of what should be in their own organization.

99. In organizational change, future search conferences are used mainly to:

A. force employees to accept the changes to be implemented.

B. involve as many employees and other stakeholders as possible in the change process.

C. give executives an opportunity to negotiate with employees to accept the changes.

D. train employees in the skills required for the change process.

E. refreeze the desired conditions in the organization.

100. Which of the following organizational change activities adopts a "whole systems" perspective of the

change process?

A. Large group interventions

B. Action research

C. Appreciative inquiry

D. Force field analysis

E. Parallel learning structures

101. What is the role of future search conferences in the process of organizational change?

A. They are an effective form of coercion so that employees agree to abide by the change process.

B. They mainly select the best person to serve as the change agent for the process.

C. They help generate a collective vision for the organization.

D. They interfere with the change process and therefore should be avoided unless the other approaches fail.

E. They are mainly a forum whereby senior executives can tell employees about their future corporate plans.

102. A parallel learning structure:

A. is a feature of all organizational change interventions.

B. includes highly participative teams constructed alongside the formal organizational hierarchy.

C. exists in organizations where employees are located in two or more buildings.

D. is mostly comprised of senior management and some professional staff members.

E. includes a specialized team of experts who possess the necessary skills to monitor the change process.

103. ABC Corp. selected employees and managers from across the organization to find new ways to serve its

customers. The team operated independently of the main organization and experimented with new service

delivery approaches. This team is most similar to:

A. the sequential approach to organizational change.

B. a parallel learning structure.

C. the appreciative inquiry approach to organizational change.

D. the process of diffusing organizational change.

E. the process of creating an urgency to change.

104. Which of the following statements is true concerning Lewin's Force Field model in the context of changes

in other cultures?

A. Lewin's model is equally applicable in any cultural setting.

B. Lewin's model, like the Western perspective on change, views change as linear.

C. Lewin's model decreases the presence of ethical concerns often associated with change in other cultures.

D. Lewin's model views change as a harmonious process revolving around an equilibrium.

E. Lewin's model assumes that change is interconnected.

105. XYZ Office Supplies

XYZ Office Supplies is about to introduce a new customer service program that will affect all of its 355 sales

and service employees. Job duties will be changed and the employee reward system will be altered to fit this

new customer focus. Moreover, the company wants to improve the efficiency of work processes, thereby

removing some of the comfortable (and often leisurely) routines that employees have followed over the years.

Top management is concerned about what types of forces resisting change the company will potentially

experience during this change process.

Which of the following types of resistance to change might be used by employees at XYZ as a deliberate

strategy to ‘prove' that the decision is wrong or that the change agent is incompetent?

A. Negative valence of change

B. Fear of the unknown

C. Not-invented-here syndrome

D. Breaking routines

E. Incongruent organizational systems

106. XYZ Office Supplies

XYZ Office Supplies is about to introduce a new customer service program that will affect all of its 355 sales

and service employees. Job duties will be changed and the employee reward system will be altered to fit this

new customer focus. Moreover, the company wants to improve the efficiency of work processes, thereby

removing some of the comfortable (and often leisurely) routines that employees have followed over the years.

Top management is concerned about what types of forces resisting change the company will potentially

experience during this change process.

XYZ attempts to assist the change process by putting employees in direct contact with customers. Here, the

company is trying to:

A. create an urgency for change.

B. use the stress management technique.

C. induce organizational learning.

D. negotiate with the employees.

E. coerce the employees to make a decision.

107. Telecommco

The chief executive of Telecommco, a large telecommunications company, wanted to restructure the

organization so product leaders would have more power than the executives in charge of each region. The

regional executives tried to prevent this restructuring because it would weaken their power and possibly reduce

their salaries in the long term. The product leaders also put up some resistance because they felt that things

worked the way they were.

This action by the regional executives is mainly an example of resistance due to:

A. not-invented-here syndrome.

B. fear of the unknown.

C. negative valence of change.

D. breaking routines.

E. incongruent organizational systems.

108. BusCorp.

BusCorp. wants to introduce a new procedure to improve how customer requests are handled. This change will

require employees to break old routines and adopt new role patterns. They decide to adopt two new programs,

one in which employees learn how to work as teams as the company changes. The other involves forming task

forces within the company to help determine new customer service practices.

The strategy BusCorp. is using to minimizing resistance to change is known as:

A. communication.

B. learning.

C. stress management.

D. negotiation.

E. coercion.

109. BusCorp.

BusCorp. wants to introduce a new procedure to improve how customer requests are handled. This change will

require employees to break old routines and adopt new role patterns. They decide to adopt two new programs,

one in which employees learn how to work as teams as the company changes. The other involves forming task

forces within the company to help determine new customer service practices.

The formation of task forces to minimize resistance to change is known as:

A. communication.

B. learning.

C. stress management.

D. negotiation.

E. employee involvement.

110. Trendy Fashions

Trendy Fashions, a large retail chain, is experiencing conflict and organizational politics among its managers.

The company's customer service ratings are suffering and managers are pointing to other departments as the

cause of the problem. The conflicts and politics are further contributing to the customer service problems. The

CEO of this chain has just heard about the appreciative inquiry process and thinks this might be a good

technique to use to improve this situation. He needs more information on this process.

The CEO will need to know that the first step in his appreciative inquiry change effort will begin with:

A. determining the cause of the problem.

B. determining whether there exists a problem that needs to be fixed.

C. involving employees in the process of unfreezing.

D. identifying the positive elements of the organization or work unit that is performing well.

E. creating a common image among participants of what should be in their own organization.

111. Trendy Fashions

Trendy Fashions, a large retail chain, is experiencing conflict and organizational politics among its managers.

The company's customer service ratings are suffering and managers are pointing to other departments as the

cause of the problem. The conflicts and politics are further contributing to the customer service problems. The

CEO of this chain has just heard about the appreciative inquiry process and thinks this might be a good

technique to use to improve this situation. He needs more information on this process.

One reason the CEO's idea of using an appreciative inquiry approach might be successful is that this approach

takes the organization from "what is" to ultimately:

A. "what will be."

B. "what should be."

C. "what could be."

D. "what might be."

E. "what cannot be."

112. The three main components of active listening, in order, are:

A. sensing, evaluating, and responding.

B. encoding, decoding, and transmitting.

C. inferring, deferring, and referring.

D. summarizing, encoding, and responding.

E. buffering, summarizing, and omitting.

113. You have made an important presentation to several Japanese executives regarding a proposed partnership

between your American company and their Japanese firm. The Japanese executives were very silent during the

presentation. Most people in the United States would view this silence as:

A. a symbol of interpersonal harmony.

B. an indication that the Japanese are thoughtfully contemplating what you have just said in your presentation.

C. an agreement to the proposal made by you.

D. a respect for your presentation.

E. a lack of communication.

114. A consumer products firm with a functional structure is expanding from a single product line into several

diverse product groups, with most sales within one country. Which of the following should it eventually adopt

to manage the new conditions most effectively?

A. Geographic divisional structure

B. Client divisional structure

C. Matrix structure

D. Product divisional structure

E. Simple structure

115. Listeners often engage in an automatic process of "catching" or sharing another person's emotions by

mimicking that person's facial expressions and other nonverbal behavior. Which of the following drives causes

this effect?

A. Drive to defend

B. Drive to bond

C. Drive to achieve

D. Drive to learn

E. Drive to protect

116. Which model of organization change explicitly refers to unfreezing the current situation and refreezing the

desired state?

A. Parallel learning structures

B. Process consultation

C. Appreciative inquiry

D. Quantum change

E. Force field analysis

117. Organizational size, technology, and environment are:

A. the three dimensions of span of control.

B. three of the four ways to avoid using coordinating mechanisms.

C. three conditions that do not influence a simple structure.

D. the three factors that distinguish a virtual corporation from a network structure.

E. three of the four contingencies of organizational design.

118. _____ represents the heart of transformational leadership.

A. Effectiveness

B. Charisma

C. Operational efficiency

D. Strategic vision

E. Emotional intelligence

119. Which of the following is a major advantage of having moderate levels of organizational conflicts?

A. More responsiveness to changing business environment

B. Reduced attrition in the organization

C. Reduced stress and job dissatisfaction among employees

D. Increased information sharing

E. Less wastage of time because of reduced communication among employees

120. Which of the following interpersonal conflict management styles represents a purely win-win orientation?

A. Forcing

B. Yielding

C. Avoiding

D. Problem solving

E. Compromising

121. An influence tactic is called "soft" because it:

A. lacks strength.

B. appeals to people's value system.

C. are based on nonverbal communication.

D. is based on personal power.

E. is based on legitimate authority rather than coercion.

122. Many of the best-performing production plants are able to widen their span of control to more than 70

employees per supervisor by:

A. teaching supervisors how to more efficiently monitor employees.

B. giving up on the idea that all employees must perform their fair share of work.

C. hiring supervisors who intimidate employees more often.

D. relying on self-directed work teams and other coordinating mechanisms.

E. introducing video cameras and other technologies to help supervisors to monitor more employees.

123. John slams his finger while closing a cabinet drawer. Mary winces and shakes her hand. This is an example

of:

A. Passive listening

B. Emotional contagion

C. Emotional intelligence

D. Tacit knowledge

E. Flaming

124. The organizational grapevine is useful because it:

A. is an effective way for management to inform employees about future organizational changes.

B. provides detailed information that more formal communication channels tend to ignore.

C. reduces information overload.

D. bonds employees together and fulfills their need for interaction.

E. allows organizations to hide important information from employees.

125. _____ is the strongest outcome of influence, whereby people identify with the influencer's request and are

highly motivated to implement it even when extrinsic sources of motivation are no longer present.

A. Compliance

B. Commitment

C. Organizational politics

D. Role modeling

E. Resistance

126. Which of these forces pushes organizations toward a new state of affairs?

A. Process forces

B. Driving forces

C. Equilibrium forces

D. Restraining forces

E. Freezing forces

127. Many companies are moving away from divisionalized structures that organize people around:

A. functional specializations.

B. clients.

C. geographic clusters.

D. products.

E. emerging forms of technology.

128. In organizational settings, power is defined as:

A. the practice of trying to influence another person.

B. the capacity to influence others.

C. the act of changing another person's attitudes and behaviors.

D. the extent to which one person is required to follow another person's commands even though he or she does

not want to follow the commands.

E. the ability of a person who is dependent on another person to dominate another person who is not at all

dependent on the first person.

129. "Strong ties" are:

A. relationships a manager has with upper-level managers.

B. relationships a manager has with family and friends.

C. easier to form than "weak ties."

D. close-knit relationships.

E. relationships with acquaintances.

130. Third-party dispute resolution activities are classified in terms of their:

A. arbitrariness and firmness.

B. level of process control and level of decision control.

C. assertiveness and cooperativeness.

D. differentiation and interdependence.

E. consequences for the organization.

131. A problem associated with path-goal theory is that:

A. it has received less research support than other contingency leadership models.

B. some elements of the theory have not yet been investigated.

C. it ignores the possibility that the best leadership style depends on the situation.

D. it overlooks the two dimensions of leadership identified in the managerial leadership perspective of

leadership.

E. it ignores team dynamics as a possible contingency of leadership.

132. XYZ Company

As a manager for XYZ Company, you are assigned to resolve a conflict between two departments of your

organization, Department A and Department B. Both parties have equal power. Both the parties are under time

pressure to resolve the conflict. You also realize that the parties lack trust/openness for problem solving.

Which conflict resolution style would you use in this situation?

A. Forcing

B. Yielding

C. Avoiding

D. Compromising

E. Problem-solving

133. Persuasion works best:

A. through media-rich communication channels.

B. with highly intelligent audiences.

C. when emotional appeals are not used.

D. when there is a clear profit motive for the persuader.

E. when only one viewpoint is presented.

134. Organizations with an adaptive corporate culture:

A. are unlikely to survive in the long run.

B. have employees who see things from an open systems perspective.

C. tend to be less ethical than organizations with non-adaptive cultures.

D. have no artifacts to keep their culture in place.

E. are focused inward to employee needs.

135. Which of these statements about shared assumptions is true?

A. They are not taken-for-granted perceptions, but rather conscious decisions.

B. They are so deeply embedded they probably cannot be discovered by surveying employees.

C. They are the same as espoused values.

D. They are revealed through corporate value statements.

E. They rise to the surface only when employees let them.

136. The best way to determine an organization's shared assumptions is to:

A. interview executives.

B. look for evidence of its corporate value statements.

C. determine what the organization's enacted values are.

D. read public relations statements produced by the organization.

E. ask customers to evaluate the company's effectiveness.

137. ______ refers to any behavior that attempts to alter someone's attitudes or behavior.

A. Legitimate power

B. Politics

C. Influence

D. Tactics

E. Impression management

138. Organizational politics is more common where decisions are:

A. easy to understand.

B. based on complex and ambiguous rules.

C. based on the brainstorming technique.

D. based on clearly defined principles.

E. based on formal criteria.

139. _____ leadership refers to how well leaders are aware of, feel comfortable with, and act consistently with

their self-concepts.

A. Authentic

B. Transformational

C. Servant

D. Path-goal

E. Implicit

140. Fun, Incorporated

Fun, Incorporated, a major gaming software company, is experiencing conflict between the young Internetsavvy

employees who design the games and the older, less computer-literate executives who run the company.

The company has hired team leaders who could work with the executives and who were also highly computerliterate.

By hiring these team leaders as liaisons between the executives and employees, the company will:

A. increase conflict between developers and executives by reducing communication.

B. reduce conflict by clarifying rules and procedures.

C. increase conflict by increasing task interdependence.

D. reduce conflict by creating superordinate goals.

E. reduce conflict by reducing task interdependence.

141. Which of the following leadership styles should be used by leaders when team cohesiveness is low?

A. Directive

B. Supportive

C. Participative

D. Achievement-oriented

E. Authoritative

142. Your importance in a social network is called your:

A. visibility.

B. absorption.

C. centrality.

D. discretion.

E. persuasion.

143. Resolving conflicts between work and nonwork activities mainly occurs during the _____ stage of

socialization.

A. role management

B. encounter

C. pre-employment

D. reality shock

E. disillusionment

144. Extreme forms of _____ include bullying, such as through explicit reminders of one's obligations.

A. coalition forming

B. upward appeal

C. persuasion

D. assertiveness

E. information control

145. One problem with a functional structure is that:

A. it is more difficult to directly supervise employees within each department.

B. it produces higher dysfunctional conflict and poorer coordination.

C. it makes it difficult to permit greater specialization of skills.

D. it prevents companies from creating economies of scale.

E. employees have difficulty creating career paths within their area of knowledge.

146. To increase work efficiency and make it easier to match employee competencies with job requirements,

companies:

A. divide work into more specialized jobs.

B. rely on formal hierarchy as a coordinating mechanism.

C. rely on a narrow span of control.

D. centralize decision making.

E. rely on formal hierarchy and a narrow span of control.

147. Organizations that tolerate or encourage subcultures with dissenting values:

A. usually go quickly out of business.

B. usually build stronger cultures to counteract those dissenting values.

C. may eventually use those dissenting values to build a new set of dominant values in the future.

D. do not have any corporate culture.

E. have a very rigid corporate culture.

148. An organic structure has:

A. a narrow span of control.

B. centralized decision making.

C. little formalization.

D. vertical communication flows.

E. rigidly defined tasks.

149. Organic structures are better than mechanistic structures for:

A. hostile environments.

B. stable environments.

C. munificent environments.

D. munificent and complex environments.

E. simple and stable environments.

150. Which of the following is true about using the strategy of integration for merging different corporate

cultures?

A. It works best when people realize that their existing cultures are good enough, which motivates them to stick

to their dominant values.

B. It is the fastest strategy for merging different corporate cultures.

C. It is potentially safe because neither party is preserving the existing culture.

D. It should be considered when the merging companies have strong cultures and distinct cultures.

E. It creates a new composite culture that preserves the best features of the previous cultures.

151. Which of the following characteristics addresses leaders' high need for achievement?

A. Integrity

B. Emotional intelligence

C. Drive

D. Self confidence

E. Leadership motivation

152. Two technological contingencies that influence the best type of organizational structure are:

A. dynamism and hostility.

B. organic and mechanistic.

C. variability and analyzability.

D. formalization and division of labor.

E. coordination and formalization.

153. Which of the following communication media tends to be the best for transmitting emotions?

A. Newsletters

B. Email messages

C. Telephone conversations

D. Face-to-face meetings

E. Written messages

154. A BATNA:

A. Represents the estimated cost of walking away from the relationship.

B. Is a form of "exploding offer."

C. Is a term representing one party's target point.

D. Is the difference between your resistance point and your opponent's resistance point.

E. Is an abbreviation for the steps in effective negotiation.

155. James has just joined CoraTech Systems, where he has been assigned to Paul and Natalie for sources of

information about the company. Paul and Natalie introduce James to others at Coratech, give him an office tour,

and assure him that they will meet him regularly for the first few weeks, to help him in the transition to the new

company. In this scenario, Paul and Natalie are part of the CoraTech's _____.

A. two-man rule

B. work ownership

C. buddy system

D. inspection partnership

E. duty segregation

156. People have ______ power when others identify with them, like them, or otherwise respect them.

A. reward

B. legitimate

C. referent

D. expert

E. coercive

157. Leadership prototypes refer to:

A. preconceived beliefs about the features and behaviors of effective leaders.

B. factors that substitute leadership in organizations.

C. a theoretical construct that encompasses all the qualities of leadership.

D. the models of ideal leadership in various situations based on previous experience.

E. an amalgam of the least effective leadership characteristics leaders should avoid.

158. In organizational structures, integrator roles serve mainly as:

A. a form of standardization.

B. an informal communication coordinating mechanism.

C. a form of direct supervision.

D. technological contingency.

E. main element in divisionalized structures.

159. Fiedler's contingency model of leadership states that the best leadership style depends on:

A. the leader's emotional intelligence.

B. the level of situational control.

C. the leader's level of servant leadership.

D. the leader's knowledge of the employee's job.

E. ability and motivation of followers.

160. Research suggests that effective workspace design mainly balances the trade-off between:

A. social interaction and emotional contagion.

B. verbal and nonverbal communication.

C. employee privacy and social interaction.

D. information overload and information underload.

E. buffering and information overload.

161. Which of the following is a limitation of the transformational perspective of leadership?

A. It focuses too much on how leaders improve organizational efficiency.

B. It is typically presented as a universal rather than contingency perspective.

C. Transformational leaders are not defined in terms of their success.

D. It totally ignores the need for having an organizational change agent.

E. Transformational leaders are often judged based on specific behaviors.

162. Which of the following leadership styles in path-goal theory is the same as people-oriented leadership?

A. Directive

B. Supportive

C. Participative

D. Achievement-oriented

E. Telling

163. The concept of leadership prototypes is an important component of:

A. competency theory.

B. implicit leadership theory.

C. Fiedler's contingency perspective.

D. transformational perspective.

E. path-goal theory of leadership.

164. Ingratiation is part of a larger influence tactic known as _____.

A. upward influence

B. impression management

C. persuasion

D. risk management

E. upward appeal

165. Employees also have _____ power over their bosses through their feedback and ratings in 360-degree

feedback systems.

A. referent

B. reward

C. legitimate

D. expert

E. coercive

166. _____ establishes the chain of command - the system of common supervision among positions and units

within the organization.

A. Span of control

B. Formalization

C. Centralization

D. Job rotation

E. Departmentalization

167. Which of the following fundamental requirements do all organizational structures have?

A. Flatter span of control and decentralization

B. Division of labor and coordination

C. Decentralization and divisionalization

D. Coordination and decentralization

E. Centralization and outsourcing

168. _____ involves actively applying legitimate and coercive power to influence others.

A. Assertiveness

B. Upward appeal

C. Persuasion

D. Coalition forming

E. Information control

169. A wholesale grocery business operates in one city and provides one service—stocking retailers with fresh

produce. The company wants to ensure that employees develop expertise in their skill specialization and that

these specializations are used efficiently. The aim is to create specialized pools of talent that serve everyone in

the company. Which of the following forms of departmentalization would be most appropriate here?

A. Simple structure

B. Matrix structure

C. Geographic divisional structure

D. Functional structure

E. Product divisional structure

170. People who seldom trust coworkers and tend to use cruder influence tactics have:

A. strong Machiavellian values.

B. a high level of organizational citizenship.

C. excellent Skills for working in teams.

D. more expert power than most people in organizations.

E. strong work ethics.

171. Which of the following factors leads to relationship conflicts in teams?

A. Low levels of communication

B. Low levels of interdependence

C. Abundant resources

D. Homogeneous workforce

E. Common goal

172. Buffering, summarizing, and omitting are ways to:

A. reduce information overload.

B. avoid organizational risk.

C. avoid the risk of flaming.

D. improve communication between men and women.

E. increase media richness.

173. Which form of departmentalization tends to have a very flat hierarchy, little formalization and organizes

employees around work processes?

A. Geographical structure

B. Functional structure

C. Team-based structure

D. Matrix structure

E. Network structure

174. Which of the following conflict management styles is associated with low cooperativeness and low

assertiveness?

A. Forcing

B. Inquisition

C. Compromising

D. Arbitration

E. Avoiding

175. Which of these sources of power originates mainly from the person rather than the position?

A. Referent power

B. Legitimate power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

E. Perceived right

176. The process in which one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by

another party is called:

A. mediation.

B. conflict.

C. negotiation.

D. dialogue.

E. arbitration.

177. Which leadership theory or perspective adopts the view that leaders are agents of change?

A. Transformational leadership perspective

B. Path-goal theory

C. Implicit leadership perspective

D. Managerial perspective

E. Leadership substitutes

178. _____ are collaborative Web spaces in which anyone in a group can write, edit, or remove material from

the Web site.

A. Blogs

B. Podcasts

C. Wikis

D. Intranets

E. Local area networks

179. _____ is the third stage of organizational socialization that is most active as employees make the transition

from newcomers to insiders.

A. Role management

B. Preemployment socialization

C. Encounter

D. Gathering information

E. Job interview

180. The (perceived) ability to manage uncertainties in the business environment is a form of _____ power.

A. reward

B. legitimate

C. referent

D. expert

E. coercive

181. Telecommco

The chief executive of Telecommco, a large telecommunications company, wanted to restructure the

organization so product leaders would have more power than the executives in charge of each region. The

regional executives tried to prevent this restructuring because it would weaken their power and possibly reduce

their salaries in the long term. The product leaders also put up some resistance because they felt that things

worked the way they were.

The resistance from the product leaders is an example of resistance due to:

A. not-invented-here syndrome.

B. fear of the unknown.

C. negative valence of change.

D. breaking routines.

E. incongruent organizational systems.

182. For which type of environment should organizations adopt an organic structure?

A. Munificent environment

B. Dynamic environment

C. Stable environment

D. Simple environment

E. Routine environment

183. Charlotte International

Employees at Charlotte International have been frustrated with the management on just about everything. The

conflict episodes are viewed by both sides as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve problems. Both

sides have decided to seek third-party dispute resolution. Management prefers a third-party intervention that has

high process and decision control while employees prefer a high level of process control and not decision

control.

Employees at Charlotte International prefer which of the following types of third-party intervention?

A. Inquisitor

B. Competitor

C. Arbitrator

D. Abstainer

E. Mediator

184. Power is the _____ to change someone's behavior.

A. need

B. act

C. potential

D. duty

E. hidden agenda

185. Which of the following refers to availability of alternatives?

A. Visibility

B. Substitutability

C. Centrality

D. Discretion

E. Referent power

186. Forming a coalition:

A. is part of a typical manager's job description.

B. takes advantage of situations where who you know is more important than what you know.

C. causes the decision to become more complex and ambiguous.

D. increases the legitimacy of its desired outcome.

E. more effectively communicates weaknesses with opposing positions.

187. The encoding-decoding process is generally more effective when both parties:

A. have a diverse set of skills and capabilities.

B. differ in their level of expertise and knowledge.

C. come from different cultures.

D. are skilled in using the selected communication channel.

E. have formed perceptions and varying beliefs about interpersonal communication.

188. Which or the following is true about strong ties?

A. Strong ties are the most valuable ties we have.

B. May be less valuable then having weak ties with people from diverse networks.

C. Tend to yield the most value in job hunting and career development.

D. Strong ties represent tend to represent people who are quite dissimilar to us.

E. Strong ties take less time and energy to form and maintain.

189. Referent power is typically associated with:

A. reward systems.

B. power distance.

C. uncertainty avoidance.

D. peer pressure.

E. charisma.

190. Servant leadership emphasizes the notion that:

A. employees are paid to serve their leaders.

B. leaders should be able to serve the organization by maximizing employee performance.

C. employees are servants in the organization, so they should place organizational objectives above their

personal needs.

D. leaders should serve the organization rather than the society.

E. leaders serve followers, rather than vice versa.

191. When people have leadership prototypes, they:

A. attribute the actions of leaders to external causes rather than to internal attributes.

B. give leaders more credit or blame than due because of their need to believe that life's events are caused

mainly by human agents.

C. believe that effective leaders should concentrate on increasing organizational effectiveness rather than other

activities.

D. believe that leaders are effective only if they behave consistently with their own preconceptions of how an

effective leader should act.

E. tend to observe the leader's performance rather than physical features and other traits.

192. According to the competency perspective of leadership:

A. effective leadership involves being both task-oriented and people-oriented.

B. the best leadership style depends on the situation.

C. introducing specific environmental conditions can replace the need for leaders.

D. leadership is a personal characteristic of the person.

E. people tend to inflate the importance of leadership in explaining organizational events.

193. The _____ structure tends to duplicate resources, such as production equipment and engineering or

information technology expertise.

A. divisional

B. functional

C. simple

D. matrix

E. network

194. One of the defining characteristics of a matrix organizational structure is that it:

A. overlays two organizational structures in order to leverage the benefits of both.

B. has a narrow span of control and high degree of formalization and centralization.

C. is the only structure that organizes employees around specific knowledge or other resources.

D. uses self-directed work teams rather than individuals as the basic building block of organizations.

E. is an alliance of several organizations for the purpose of creating a product or serving a client.

195. When functional structures are compared with divisionalized structures, functional structures are known

to:

A. create better economies of scale.

B. be more responsive to local markets.

C. encourage employees to focus on the organization's superordinate goals.

D. be more decentralized.

E. be more responsive to client needs and reduce conflict across work units.

196. How do men and women generally differ in their communication styles in organizational settings?

A. Men are more likely than women to communicate to strengthen relationships.

B. Women have a more dominant conversation style.

C. Women are usually more sensitive than men to the listener's nonverbal cues.

D. Men tend to engage less in report talk than women.

E. Men apologize more often in their conversations and interactions than women.

197. Which of the following is an advantage of using email communication?

A. It reduces the problem of information overload.

B. It reduces the frequency of flaming.

C. It is easier to interpret emotional meaning in email messages as they are less formal.

D. It increases the politeness and respect of communication.

E. It significantly alters the flow of information within groups.

198. Which of the following is a limitation of the competency perspective of leadership?

A. It ignores the potential traits of a leader and hence cannot be used to identify leaders.

B. It suggests that leadership varies according to situations but does not provide remedies to solve any problems

related to it.

C. It supports the view that every individual possesses leadership qualities.

D. It does not consider the importance of integrity and emotional intelligence in leadership.

E. It views leadership as something within a person.

199. According to the literature on organizational conflict, constructive conflict:

A. is a positive application of conflict in organizations.

B. is one of the most common outcomes of organizational conflict.

C. is the only conflict management style that has high assertiveness and low cooperativeness.

D. is the main source of conflict in organizations.

E. should not be used as a conflict management strategy in organizations.

200. You are assigned to resolve a conflict between two departments of an organization. Both parties have equal

power. Both the parties are under time pressure to resolve the conflict. You also realize that the parties lack trust/

openness for problem solving. You are actively searching for a middle ground between the interests of the two

parties. Which of the following conflict resolution styles would you use in this situation?

A. Forcing

B. Yielding

C. Compromising

D. Avoiding

E. Problem-solving

201. Which of the following leadership styles in path-goal theory is most closely associated with goal-setting

and positive self-fulfilling prophecy?

A. Directive

B. Supportive

C. Participative

D. Achievement-oriented

E. Encouraging

202. The competency (trait) perspective of leadership:

A. is one of the most recently studied perspectives of leadership.

B. is no longer accepted as an approach to understanding leadership in organizations.

C. takes a contingency approach by identifying the best leadership competencies under different conditions.

D. holds the view that leaders' competency is dependent on the situation.

E. presents the view that certain personal characteristics distinguish great leaders from the rest of us.

203. Employees are more likely to comply with a supervisor's legitimate power when the:

A. employees have high power distance.

B. power holder gives orders outside the employees' normal role requirements.

C. company encourages people to disobey orders that interfere with their work.

D. manager has little charisma.

E. manager has a very good reward system in place.

204. Which organizational structure actually consists of several organizations?

A. Divisionalized structure

B. Functional structure

C. Simple structure

D. Matrix structure

E. Network structure

205. NewTel, Inc.

NewTel is a telephone company with a policy of filling positions internally through promotions, rather than

hiring from outside. Until recently, the company had a strong engineering focus and tended to promote people

into senior executive positions from the engineering areas. Consequently, almost all of the company's 14 senior

executives joined the company over 20 years ago in junior engineering positions. There is increasing pressure

on NewTel to become more marketing and service-oriented. As a result, four people were hired last year from

consumer products and retail firms to fill new senior executive positions in marketing and service management.

The external hires were necessary because current employees were not sufficiently qualified. Now there are

signs of tension among senior executives, particularly during budget deliberations where there is limited

discretionary spending on new corporate activities. The four new hires have been frustrated in their attempts to

have the company put more money into marketing and customer services instead of technology investment and

blame the senior executives for being hard-headed. The conflict episodes are viewed by both sides as personal

attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem.

The marketing executives and the other executives operate independently. However, they share the resources

and money in the organization. This kind of interdependence is referred to as:

A. total interdependence.

B. sequential interdependence.

C. orderly interdependence.

D. pooled interdependence.

E. reciprocal interdependence.

206. Rituals are:

A. programmed routines of daily organizational life that dramatize the organization's culture.

B. more formal artifacts than ceremonies.

C. verbal symbols of cultural values that reveal how employees talk to one another, describe customers, express

anger, and greet stakeholders.

D. physical structures that convey the dominant values of an organization's culture.

E. games that people play to defy the dominant culture and, instead, support countercultural beliefs and values.

207. When work activities are too complex to standardize through procedures or goals, companies often

coordinate work effort:

A. through direct supervision.

B. by extensively training employees.

C. by giving one employee most of the tasks previously divided among many people.

D. through further division of labor.

E. through formal hierarchy.

208. _____ involves explicitly manipulating others' access to critical work issues for the purpose of changing

their attitudes and/or behavior.

A. Ingratiation

B. Upward appeal

C. Persuasion

D. Assertiveness

E. Information control

209. XYZ Company

As a manager for XYZ Company, you are assigned to resolve a conflict between two departments of your

organization, Department A and Department B. Both parties have equal power. Both the parties are under time

pressure to resolve the conflict. You also realize that the parties lack trust/openness for problem solving.

If instead of equal power, the Department A had considerably more power than Department B, what would

Department B's best conflict resolution style be?

A. Forcing

B. Yielding

C. Avoiding

D. Compromising

E. Problem-solving

210. When the acquired firm has a weak culture, it is best to use the _____ merger strategy.

A. disambiguation

B. separation

C. deculturation

D. assimilation

E. integration

211. One advantage of countercultures is that they:

A. rarely exist in real organizations.

B. maintain surveillance over and critically review the company's dominant culture.

C. prevent organizations from developing a corporate culture.

D. ensure that corporate mergers occur without any culture clashes.

E. discourage conflict and dissension among employees.

212. One of the defining characteristics of a functional organizational structure is that it:

A. has a narrow span of control and high degree of formalization and centralization.

B. is the structure that organizes employees around specific knowledge or other resources.

C. overlays two organizational structures in order to leverage the benefits of both types of structure.

D. uses self-directed work teams rather than individuals as the basic building block of organizations.

E. is an alliance of several organizations for the purpose of creating a product or serving a client.

213. Which of the following leadership approaches directly support the idea that the "romance of leadership" is

important in leadership?

A. Transformational leadership perspective

B. Managerial leadership perspective

C. Implicit leadership perspective

D. Contingency perspective of leadership

E. Servant perspective of leadership

214. Coordination through formal hierarchy relies on:

A. informal communication.

B. job descriptions.

C. goals and objectives.

D. direct supervision.

E. specialized skills of the employees.

215. MoneySafe

MoneySafe, a financial services organization, uses performance-based reward systems across various

departments to keep employees directed toward organizational goals. The management believes that these

rewards might replace or reduce the need for task-oriented leadership.

Which of the following leadership theories supports this action?

A. Situational leadership

B. Path-goal

C. Authentic leadership

D. Leadership substitutes

E. Competency perspective

216. Which of the following are the observable indicators of organizational culture?

A. Assumptions

B. Artifacts

C. Values

D. Beliefs

E. Mental models

217. The main purpose of a bicultural audit is to:

A. determine whether a company's organizational culture is sufficiently strong.

B. estimate the number of dominant and subcultural values that exist in an organization.

C. find out whether people from different countries have the same corporate cultures.

D. identify and diagnose differences in the corporate cultures of merging organizations.

E. teach new employees the organization's dominant cultural values.

218. Organizational socialization is best described as a process of _____ where newcomers try to make sense of

and adapt to the company's environment.

A. cooperation and stability

B. power and restructuring

C. negotiation and concession-making

D. learning and adjustment

E. managing and delegating

219. Which of the following statements is true of the relationship conflicts in a highly cohesive team?

A. Relationship conflicts tend to be more frequent because of the high cohesion.

B. Mediation is needed to resolve relationship conflicts among team members.

C. Relationship conflict is absent in such teams.

D. Conflicts tend to be more in such teams if it has a large number of members.

E. Relationship conflict is suppressed when the conflict occurs.

220. What is the relationship between emotional intelligence and relationship conflicts?

A. Emotional intelligence is unrelated to relationship conflicts.

B. Emotional intelligence tends to increase the likelihood of relationship conflicts.

C. Relationship conflict is less likely to occur if emotional intelligence is high.

D. With emotional intelligence, conflicts tend to stay relationship-based.

E. With emotional intelligence, the conversion of relationship conflicts to constructive conflicts is slow.

221. The freedom to exercise judgment in an organization is called _______.

A. visibility

B. absorption

C. centrality

D. discretion

E. persuasion

222. When a member of a network has shorter, more direct, and efficient paths or connections with others in the

network, we say that member has high:

A. closeness.

B. betweenness.

C. discretion.

D. degree centrality.

E. political power.

223. A person who has legitimate, reward, and coercive power over others in an organization is most likely to:

A. feel free from others' authority.

B. feel a sense of duty or responsibility over the people over whom they have power.

C. engage in more automatic thinking.

D. rely more on stereotypical thinking.

E. have difficulty empathizing.

224. Sunshine Toys

At Sunshine Toys, several employees must work together to develop a new product. No one in this group has

worked with any of the others before, and the development of this product has not been attempted previously.

According to the media richness model, which of the following communication channels is most appropriate in

this situation?

A. Written documents

B. Email

C. Face-to-face meetings

D. Bulletin boards

E. Weblogs

225. Which of the following communication channels has the highest media richness?

A. Newsletter

B. Email

C. Telephone call

D. Video conference

E. Instant messaging

226. Language is:

A. programmed routines of daily organizational life that dramatize the organization's culture.

B. not good at highlighting the values of organizational subcultures.

C. verbal symbols of cultural values that reveal how employees describe customers, express anger, and greet

stakeholders.

D. physical structures that convey the dominant values of an organization's culture.

E. games that people play to defy the dominant culture and, instead, support countercultural beliefs and values.

227. CPA4U

Gina and Chen are both managers at CPA4U, a large accounting firm. Each has a very different management

style. Gina is very outgoing and constantly checking on her subordinates to see if there is any way she can help

them to complete their projects. She also brings in fresh flowers for the lunchroom weekly and always

remembers everyone's birthday. Chen is much more introverted and communicates with his subordinates mainly

through email and he has his subordinates submit daily reports on their progress towards the weekly goals he

has assigned them.

Which type of leader is Chen?

A. Servant leader

B. Emotional leader

C. Path-goal leader

D. Task-oriented leader

E. Transformational Leader

228. In Alphatech Systems, email software screens incoming messages by organizing them into mailboxes and

identifying junk mail. As a result, employees in this company can quickly identify the most important email

messages, and overlook the junk mail. This email feature improves communication by:

A. increasing media richness.

B. reducing information load.

C. minimizing emotional contagion.

D. reducing the use of jargon.

E. increasing social acceptance of mails.

229. Candoo Ltd. will soon flatten its hierarchy by removing two of the five layers of management. If the

number of employees in the organization remains constant, which of the following must also occur?

A. It must adopt a matrix form of departmentalization.

B. It must widen the span of control.

C. It must rely more on direct supervision than on standardization to coordinate the resulting structure.

D. It must centralize decision making.

E. It must discourage employee empowerment.

230. Which strategy for merging two distinct cultures is most effective when the two companies have relatively

weak cultures with overlapping values?

A. Deculturation

B. Assimilation

C. Separation

D. Integration

E. Negotiation

231. Which of the following is true about organizational culture?

A. It is suggested that companies with strong cultures tend to be more successful, irrespective of any conditions.

B. Companies have strong cultures when the dominant values are held mainly by a few people at the top of the

organization.

C. Most employees across all subunits understand the dominant values but choose to ignore them.

D. The life span of strong organizational cultures is almost always short.

E. The strength of an organization's culture refers to how widely and deeply employees hold the company's

dominant values and assumptions.

232. Which of the following is true about mental models?

A. Mental models usually help to improve organizational effectiveness.

B. Mental models are one of the artifacts of organizational culture.

C. Mental models are mainly used to decipher an organization's culture.

D. Mental models can blind employees to new opportunities and unique problems.

E. Mental models are unrelated to organizational culture.

233. Whenever a team in Ads Today, an advertising firm, wins a new contract, the successful team rings a loud

bell and breaks out a bottle of champagne. In organizational culture, this practice would be considered:

A. unethical.

B. a ceremony.

C. a mental model.

D. a symptom of a culture that is out of touch with its external environment.

E. irrelevant to the meaning or study of organizational culture.

234. According to Fiedler's contingency model of leadership:

A. everyone has the same capacity to become an effective leader.

B. effective leaders are able to change their style to fit the situation.

C. the best leadership style depends on the availability of leadership substitutes.

D. leader effectiveness depends on whether the person's natural leadership style is appropriately matched to the

situation.

E. effective leaders vary their style with the ability and motivation (or commitment) of followers.

235. When team norms encourage _____, team members learn to appreciate honest dialogue without personally

reacting to any emotional display during the disagreements.

A. conscientiousness

B. introversion

C. neuroticism

D. openness

E. agreeableness

236. DoubleTalk, Inc.

At DoubleTalk, Inc., Joe, a supervisor, pushes his employees' performance by constantly checking their work

and threatening them if they fail to keep their deadlines. After months of mistreatment, the employees get

together and sign a letter to the human resources department to express their grievances.

Which form of influence is this supervisor using?

A. Impression management

B. Silent authority

C. Referent

D. Assertiveness

E. Persuasion

237. _____ includes defining and structuring work roles, clarifying employees' work duties and procedures, and

pushing employees to reach their performance capacity.

A. Achievement-orientation

B. Participation-orientation

C. Task-orientation

D. Transformational-orientation

E. People-orientation

238. Social networks generate power through:

A. political behavior.

B. Guanxi.

C. social capital.

D. network capital.

E. Machiavellianism.

239. The organizational culture dimension of attention to detail is characterized by _____.

A. tolerance

B. fairness

C. precision

D. collaboration

E. security

240. In which strategy does the acquiring company impose its culture and business practices on the acquired

organization?

A. Deculturation

B. Assimilation

C. Separation

D. Integration

E. Bicultural audit

241. Which of the following is typically most important among people working in hospital surgical operations?

A. Organizational goals

B. Integrator roles

C. Job descriptions

D. Extensive training

E. Company rules

242. Which of the following third-party conflict resolution strategies is characterized by high process control

and high process control?

A. Inquisition

B. Arbitration

C. Mediation

D. Imposition

E. Compromise

243. Increasing inventories between sequential work units tends to reduce potential conflict by:

A. reducing resource scarcity.

B. reducing differentiation.

C. increasing the required level of communication between employees in sequential units.

D. reducing ambiguity in resource allocation.

E. reducing task interdependence.

244. One of the functions of _____ is that it is a spawning ground for emerging values that keep the firm aligned

with the needs of customers, suppliers, society, and other stakeholders.

A. a multicultural organization

B. a shared value

C. a subculture

D. an espoused value

E. urban culture

245. Which of the following statements about culture and leadership is true?

A. Participative leadership is perceived as characteristic of effective leadership in low power distance cultures.

B. There are no similarities and only differences in the concept and preferred practice of leadership across

cultures.

C. Transformational leadership theory explains differences in leadership practices across cultures.

D. Employees in high power distance cultures prefer a participative leadership style.

E. People's expectations from their leaders are universal—they do not differ across countries.

246. Telling, selling, participating, and delegating represent the four leadership styles identified in:

A. path-goal theory.

B. transformational leadership theory.

C. leadership competencies theory.

D. situational leadership theory.

E. implicit leadership theory.

247. What effect does "noise" have in the communication model?

A. It distorts and obscures the sender's intended message.

B. It prevents the sender from forming a message.

C. It helps the sender to select a more appropriate medium to transmit the message.

D. It helps the receiver to decode the message more carefully.

E. The concept of "noise" is not significant in the communication model.

248. Bob's Small Business

Bob owns a small business with 12 employees. He is anticipating a large contract in the near future which he

hopes will triple his profit and double the number of employees he will hire. Bob has always been a very likable

man and a dependable, hard-working person. He is very worried about his ability to take on twice as many

employees and continue on a successful path.

From the information provided, which of the following best encompasses Bob's weakest leadership competency

according to the competency perspective?

A. Self-concept

B. Integrity

C. Cognitive intelligence

D. Personality

E. Practical intelligence

249. Sanco Systems uses performance-based reward systems across various departments to keep employees

directed toward organizational goals. The management at Sanco Systems believes that these rewards might

replace or reduce the need for task-oriented leadership. Which of the following leadership theories supports this

action?

A. Situational leadership

B. Servant leadership

C. Managerial leadership perspective

D. Leadership substitutes

E. Competency perspective

250. Most employees at Quokka Systems are organized into project teams. Employees report to the project

leader, but they also report to a leader responsible for their functional specialization (such as engineering or

marketing). Quokka Systems has a:

A. simple structure.

B. client-based divisionalized structure.

C. matrix structure.

D. product-based divisionalized structure.

E. functional structure.

251. Which of the following leadership styles in path-goal theory is the same as task-oriented leadership?

A. Directive

B. Supportive

C. Participative

D. Achievement-oriented

E. Collaborative

252. The yielding conflict management style should be used if:

A. the parties have equal power.

B. the issue is much less important to you than to the other party.

C. the other party has much less power than you do.

D. the issue is important to both parties.

E. you have a deep conviction about your position.

253. The increasing recognition that an organization has only a few core competencies is one of the forces

pushing towards more:

A. functional structures.

B. simple structures.

C. client-based divisionalized structures.

D. network structures.

E. team-based structures.

254. Which of the following is a leadership style identified in path-goal theory?

A. Achievement-oriented leadership

B. Selling leadership

C. Transformational leadership

D. Emotional intelligence

E. Managerial leadership

255. Organizational and environmental complexities push organizations toward:

A. formalization.

B. a more mechanistic structure.

C. decentralization.

D. a simple structure.

E. a narrow span of control.

256. Hogan Company

A new employee in the finance department of the Hogan Company prominently displays diplomas and past

awards indicating his financial expertise.

What type of power is this employee most likely trying to attain?

A. Expert

B. Coercive

C. Legitimate

D. Reward

E. Referent

257. Reality shock is:

A. provided by organizations to ensure that new employees accept the challenges at work.

B. an element in the model of individual behavior.

C. common in lateral career development.

D. a unique feature of an adaptive culture.

E. a perceived discrepancy between employee expectations and reality.

258. An organization that wants to compete through innovation should:

A. adopt an organic structure and make extensive use of informal communication to coordinate work.

B. centralize by typically giving the decision making authority to those at the top of the organizational hierarchy

and formalize its organizational structure.

C. coordinate employees by establishing formal rules and procedures.

D. switch to a cost leadership strategy as quickly as possible.

E. adopt a mechanistic structure with functional departmentalization.

259. Shanti's Workshop

Shanti recently went to a communication workshop to help improve her workplace performance. She learned

that in effective communication, she should resist forming an opinion until the speaker has finished, then

attempt to empathize with the listener, and finally effectively respond to the speaker. She learned techniques

regarding maintain eye contact and sending back channel signals to show interest.

The techniques she learned with regards to showing interest will help her improve in the _______________ of

listening.

A. sensing

B. evaluating

C. understanding

D. responding

E. identification

260. _____ theory identifies conditions that either limit the leader's ability to influence subordinates or make a

particular leadership style unnecessary.

A. Transformational leadership

B. Managerial leadership

C. Leadership substitutes

D. Path-goal

E. Implicit leadership

261. Employees in engineering and marketing often disagree with each other in how to achieve a target mainly

because they have unique backgrounds, experiences, and training. The most apparent source of conflict here is:

A. task interdependence.

B. differentiation.

C. goal incompatibility.

D. scarce resources.

E. ambiguity.

262. Conflict is ultimately based on:

A. people's perceptions.

B. actual intentions.

C. organizational structure.

D. technical competence.

E. skills and abilities of individuals.

263. Which of the following statements about leadership and gender is true?

A. Male leaders tend to use the participative style more often than do female leaders.

B. Men tend to have better interpersonal skills compared to women.

C. Male and female leaders generally do not differ in their use of participative leadership.

D. Female leaders do not comply with follower expectations.

E. Male and female leaders generally do not differ in their use of task-oriented and people-oriented leadership.

264. In the organizational change process, strategic visions:

A. could increase or decrease the resistance to change.

B. should be suppressed as the change process might require an alternate strategy.

C. could minimize fear of the unknown.

D. form the second stage of action research.

E. lead to negotiations between management and employees.

265. Which of the following active listening processes includes showing interest and clarifying the message of

the speaker?

A. Evaluating

B. Responding

C. Persuading

D. Recording

E. Sensing

266. In a purely win-lose situation, the bargaining zone states that:

A. the parties usually apply a collaborative approach to resolving their differences.

B. one should begin negotiations by describing the resistance point for each item on the agenda.

C. the two parties rarely know each other's initial point.

D. parties tend to move from their target point to their initial point very quickly.

E. neither the target nor the resistance point is revealed to the other party.

267. Relationship conflict usually causes people to:

A. use logical analysis in organizational decision making.

B. reduce communication and information sharing with the other party.

C. rethink their assumptions and beliefs about the issue that is the source of conflict.

D. stay away from organizational politics and related activities.

E. concentrate on the issue rather than the people involved in the issue.

268. Which third-party conflict resolution strategy manages the process and context of interaction between the

disputing parties but does not impose a solution on the parties?

A. Inquisition

B. Arbitration

C. Mediation

D. Legislation

E. Imposition

269. Sunshine Toys

At Sunshine Toys, several employees must work together to develop a new product. No one in this group has

worked with any of the others before, and the development of this product has not been attempted previously.

The most effective medium in this situation would be one that is:

A. routine.

B. non-ambiguous.

C. lean.

D. rich.

E. oversimplified.

270. Which of the following statements about power is true?

A. Power exists only when the power holder is able to change someone's behavior.

B. Power requires asymmetric dependence in a relationship.

C. Power is the actual practice of influencing others.

D. Power exists only when one person has something of value for a second person, but the second person has

nothing of value for the first person.

E. People cannot have power over others by controlling a desired job assignment, useful information, important

resources, or even the privilege of being associated with someone.

271. Management by walking around refers to:

A. the process used by new executives to get familiar with their new office design and layout.

B. a communication process that should be used only when executives need to explain corporate decisions to

the lower-level employees.

C. a practice in which executives get out of their offices and learn from others in the organization through faceto-

face dialogue.

D. an old strategy that results in ineffective upward communication.

E. the label used to describe new executives who experiment in management.

272. United FiberTech

Most employees at United FiberTech support the idea that the company's success depends on their willingness

to continually change and improve customer service.

United FiberTech most likely has a strong:

A. management team.

B. learning orientation.

C. drive for profits.

D. corporate cult.

E. training program.

273. The Accounting Department

Krystal's boss in the accounting department initially rejected her proposal for a new budgeting process. So

Krystal spoke to and received support from the heads of two departments that would benefit from the proposed

budgeting process. She also found support from several co-workers in the accounting department because they

believed the new budgeting process would be simpler and fairer. When Krystal's boss realized that several key

people supported the new budgeting system, he agreed to test it in a pilot project.

What form of influence is Krystal mainly using here?

A. Silent authority

B. Coalition formation

C. Assertiveness

D. Impression management

E. Persuasion

274. Organizational politics typically involves:

A. an unconscious attempt to increase your own power.

B. a conscious attempt to motivate others to work harder for the firm.

C. attempts to influence others to promote personal objectives.

D. helping other employees to fulfill their needs through organizational activities.

E. setting up stricter policies.

275. At meetings of a major consumer products firm, employees habitually stand up when the most senior

executive at the meeting enters the room. This practice represents:

A. evidence that the meeting has employees who hold countercultural values.

B. an adaptive culture in the company.

C. a ritual that probably symbolizes the organization's dominant culture.

D. a form of deculturation that eventually undermines the organization's dominant culture.

E. that the company's espoused values differs from its enacted values.

276. The number or percentage of connections you have in a network is called:

A. degree centrality.

B. discretion.

C. closeness.

D. betweenness.

E. availability.

277. Larger organizations:

A. make greater use of standardization than do smaller firms.

B. have similar structures to smaller organizations.

C. operate without any form of departmentalization for long periods of time.

D. make less use of informal communication as a coordinating mechanism.

E. are never decentralized.

278. _____ occurs when employees at the acquired company willingly embrace the cultural values of the

acquiring organization.

A. Deculturation

B. Assimilation

C. Separation

D. Integration

E. Negotiation

279. Which of the following are the three general strategies for coping with uncertainty?

A. Visibility, discretion, and prevention

B. Visibility, immediacy, and pervasiveness

C. Prevention, forecasting, and absorption

D. Discretion, immediacy, and prevention

E. Immediacy, forecasting, and absorption

280. Which strategy for merging two distinct cultures is most appropriate when the two merging companies are

in unrelated industries or operate in different countries, because the most appropriate cultural values tend to

differ by industry and national culture?

A. Deculturation

B. Assimilation

C. Separation

D. Integration

E. Negotiation

281. Which of the following is an example of the influence tactic of forming coalitions?

A. Employees get together to show management that they collectively request that the company purchase new

computer equipment.

B. Some employees of an airline threaten to go on strike just a few weeks before the company begins its busiest

season and most profitable part of the year.

C. A new executive immediately posts her diplomas and awards on the office wall for others to see.

D. To demonstrate that cost overrun errors aren't due to production employees, the production manager

privately shows senior executives examples of how the marketing manager makes mistakes on orders.

E. Employees present facts and logical arguments to change the attitude of their boss.

282. Assertiveness:

A. refers to the process of gaining support from one or more people with higher authority or expertise.

B. is an indicator that a person lacks power due to low centrality.

C. is an attempt to increase liking by, or perceived similarity to, some targeted person.

D. is also known as vocal authority.

E. refers to the use of logical arguments, factual evidence, and emotional appeals to convince people of the

value of a request.

283. Which contingency of power are unions mainly applying by going on strike at a critical time in the

company's business cycle?

A. Visibility

B. Absorption

C. Centrality

D. Discretion

E. Persuasion

284. People with high Machiavellian values tend to:

A. place a lot of trust in their colleagues.

B. stay away from organizations where politics is tolerated.

C. use more socially acceptable forms of power to influence others.

D. are comfortable using power to manipulate others toward their own personal goals.

E. believe that deceit is totally inappropriate in organizational settings.

285. Mechanistic structures operate best:

A. in stable environments.

B. where employees dislike hierarchy and status.

C. when there are horizontal rather than vertical communication flows.

D. where knowledge management is a competitive advantage to the organization.

E. where employees perform tasks with high variability and low analyzability.

286. Organizational politics may be reduced by:

A. cutting back resources available to organizational units.

B. encouraging leaders to become role models of organizational citizenship instead of symbols of successful

organizational politicians.

C. being more tolerant of employees who use political tactics to get what they want from the organization.

D. selecting employees with a high need for personalized power.

E. conducting background checks on potential employees.

287. The Accounting Department

Krystal's boss in the accounting department initially rejected her proposal for a new budgeting process. So

Krystal spoke to and received support from the heads of two departments that would benefit from the proposed

budgeting process. She also found support from several co-workers in the accounting department because they

believed the new budgeting process would be simpler and fairer. When Krystal's boss realized that several key

people supported the new budgeting system, he agreed to test it in a pilot project.

What other form of influence is Krystal using?

A. Exchange

B. Information control

C. Upward appeal

D. Integration management

E. Silent authority

288. In order to maintain the exchange relationship, the dependent party must have _____ over the dominant

party.

A. countervailing power

B. substitutability

C. reverse dependence

D. visibility

E. legitimate power

289. Which of the following best describes relationship conflict?

A. One party perceives that another party might oppose its interests.

B. The conflict is between two individuals rather than departments or organizations.

C. The conflict episodes are viewed as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem.

D. Two people adopt a win-win rather than a win-lose orientation.

E. The conflict is between two departments rather than individuals in the organization.

290. How do women differ from men in their use of leadership styles?

A. Women tend to use more of the people-oriented leadership style than do men.

B. Women and men use all leadership styles to about the same extent.

C. Women tend to use more of the task-oriented leadership style than do men.

D. Women tend to use more of the participative leadership style than do men.

E. Women tend to use directive styles of leadership in organizations.

291. Emotional contagion occurs when:

A. we share the emotions of other people.

B. we are required to show or hide our emotions, based on rules prescribed by the job.

C. two or more people experience different emotions even though they are observing the same object.

D. the communication medium has different meaning for the receiver and the sender.

E. two or more people experience the same emotions even though they are observing different objects.

292. According to the emerging view on organizational conflict, there are two types of conflict. They are:

A. Task conflict and constructive conflict

B. Task conflict and optimal conflict

C. Task conflict and relationship conflict

D. Relationship conflict and optimal conflict

E. Relationship conflict and process conflict

293. _____ occurs when people or work units oppose the behavior desired by the influencer and consequently

refuse, argue, or delay engaging in the behavior.

A. Compliance

B. Upward appeal

C. Commitment

D. Assertiveness

E. Resistance

294. In the communication process, filtering occurs when:

A. the sender carefully selects words that the receiver is most likely to understand correctly.

B. the receiver removes noise from the communication process so that the sender's message is more accurately

understood.

C. people communicate mainly positive information about themselves by screening out negative information.

D. an organization is able to prevent grapevine communication by sending the information more quickly

through newsletters and other formal communication channels.

E. the receiver avoids receiving messages from a sender, such as by avoiding the person or deliberately not

reading email messages.

295. Ceremonies are:

A. programmed routines of daily organizational life that dramatize the organization's culture.

B. more formal artifacts than rituals.

C. verbal symbols of cultural values that reveal how employees talk to one another, describe customers, express

anger, and greet stakeholders.

D. physical structures that convey the dominant values of an organization's culture.

E. games that people play to defy the dominant culture and, instead, support countercultural beliefs and values.

296. Beswick Company

Your team is allocated a project involving a major client, the Beswick Company. Although the organization has

many clients, this client, and project, is the largest source of revenue and affects the work of several other teams

in the organization. The project requires continuous involvement with the client, so any problems with the client

are immediately felt by others in the organization.

Jamie, a member of your team, is the only person in the company with whom this client is willing to deal. It can

be said that Jamie has:

A. a low degree of substitutability.

B. a low degree of centrality.

C. a high level of discretion.

D. referent power.

E. a low level of visibility.

297. Influence tactics that rely on expert power:

A. tend to produce compliance.

B. can undermine trust.

C. tend to build commitment.

D. tend to create resistance.

E. tend to hurt future relationships.

298. Which of the following explicitly argues that people have a preferred leadership style based on their

personality, so organizations should move leaders into situations that fit their preferred style?

A. Path-goal theory

B. Transformational leadership

C. Implicit leadership perspective

D. Leadership competencies perspective

E. Fiedler's contingency model of leadership

299. In the communication process model, "decoding the message" occurs immediately:

A. before the sender forms the message.

B. after the receiver receives the message.

C. after the sender forms feedback of the original message.

D. after the receiver transmits the message.

E. before the receiver receives the message.

300. Which of the following should corporate leaders do with the organizational grapevine?

A. Try to use the grapevine as a channel of communication from executives to employees as much as possible

because of its high speed and low cost

B. Use the grapevine as a signal of employee anxiety and view it as a valid competitor to the company's formal

communication system

C. Use the grapevine when the communication requires high media richness, but otherwise use meetings when

communicating with employees

D. Make every effort to destroy the grapevine, including firing employees who actively support it

E. Ignore grapevines as providing more attention to it would increase the speed of grapevine communication

301. Many employees get a reality shock on their first day at work because:

A. applicants want employees to develop better expectations of future work experiences.

B. applicants want to ensure that employees develop a stronger loyalty to the organization.

C. newcomers test how well their pre-employment expectations fit reality and many companies fail this test.

D. employers ignore the duty to orient new applicants on the first day of work.

E. colleagues provide a lot of information regarding various work assignments on the very first day.

302. Johni's Company

Johni is the CEO of a struggling company. She has listened to her employee's complaints and concerns about

where the corporation is going and has developed a new vision that she feels will help develop a common bond

throughout the organization. Johni then hosted a company-wide picnic where she delivered an inspiring speech

about the new plans for the business, including her plans for more open communication between management

and employees. After her speech, management and employees all participated in trust building exercises and

each employee had a one-on-one conversation with Johni.

What type of leadership theory most resembles Johni's actions?

A. Managerial

B. People-oriented

C. Managerial to Task-oriented

D. Transformational

E. Situational

303. American-Japanese Partnership

You have completed an important presentation to several Japanese executives regarding a proposed partnership

between your American company and their Japanese firm. The Japanese executives were very silent during the

presentation.

With regard to cross-cultural communication, this silence most likely means that the Japanese executives:

A. didn't understand what you were saying.

B. disagree with your proposal and can't think of a polite way of telling you about their rejection.

C. weren't listening to your presentation.

D. have agreed to the proposal made by you.

E. are showing respect for your presentation.

304. Which of the following communication channels is most effective when the sender wants to persuade the

receiver?

A. A formal memorandum sent to the receiver

B. An informal speech to a large audience

C. A personalized letter to the receiver

D. A personal face-to-face meeting with the receiver

E. An informal memorandum issued to the receiver

305. People with an external locus of control tend to be more satisfied with _____ leadership styles.

A. achievement-oriented and directive

B. participative and directive

C. directive and supportive

D. supportive and achievement-oriented

E. supportive and participative

306. A wider span of control is possible if:

A. employees manage themselves rather than being coordinated through close supervision.

B. the company has a high degree of formalization and operates in a complex environment.

C. the organization has few employees and a tall hierarchy.

D. the company does not rely on self-directed teams.

E. very few people report directly to a manager.

307. Path-goal theory argues that:

A. leadership is relatively unimportant in high-performance organizations.

B. participative leadership is the most effective style of leadership.

C. supportive leadership is best suited to maximize organizational performance.

D. great leaders have certain common personal characteristics and goals.

E. effective leaders select the most appropriate behavior based on the situation.

308. Which of the following is a form of "soft" influence tactic?

A. Ingratiation

B. Upward appeal

C. Coalition forming

D. Silent authority

E. Information control

309. Standardizing work through job descriptions and procedures:

A. is a form of coordination.

B. is more common when the work is complex and ambiguous.

C. tends to reduce quality and consistency.

D. is unnecessary in large organizations.

E. is more common in organic rather than mechanistic structures.

310. Which of the following is the most common form of influence in high power distance cultures?

A. Silent authority

B. Coalition formation

C. Assertiveness

D. Ingratiation

E. Information control

311. The competency perspective of leadership indicates leadership:

A. performance.

B. potential.

C. behavior.

D. contingency.

E. transformation.

312. ___________ is the cornerstone of effective value creation.

A. Power

B. Trust

C. Information

D. Communication

E. Resistance

313. The gap between two clusters in a network is called a:

A. network breakdown.

B. structural hole.

C. liaison.

D. closeness break.

E. disruption.

314. Which of the following happens immediately after the receiver receives the encoded message in the

communication process model?

A. The sender receives confirmation that the message has been understood.

B. The receiver confirms with the sender that the message sent was intended to be a message.

C. The receiver decodes the received message.

D. The receiver encodes the message.

E. The receiver forms a direct feedback in response to the received message.

315. Which of the following conflict management styles may be necessary when it is apparent that the other

party will take advantage of information sharing and other cooperative strategies?

A. Forcing

B. Yielding

C. Avoiding

D. Problem-solving

E. Compromising

316. Which of the following organizational culture dimension is characterized by risk taking, and low

cautiousness?

A. Stability

B. Innovation

C. Outcome orientation

D. Aggressiveness

E. Respect for people

317. NewTel, Inc.

NewTel is a telephone company with a policy of filling positions internally through promotions, rather than

hiring from outside. Until recently, the company had a strong engineering focus and tended to promote people

into senior executive positions from the engineering areas. Consequently, almost all of the company's 14 senior

executives joined the company over 20 years ago in junior engineering positions. There is increasing pressure

on NewTel to become more marketing and service-oriented. As a result, four people were hired last year from

consumer products and retail firms to fill new senior executive positions in marketing and service management.

The external hires were necessary because current employees were not sufficiently qualified. Now there are

signs of tension among senior executives, particularly during budget deliberations where there is limited

discretionary spending on new corporate activities. The four new hires have been frustrated in their attempts to

have the company put more money into marketing and customer services instead of technology investment and

blame the senior executives for being hard-headed. The conflict episodes are viewed by both sides as personal

attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem.

The conflict at NewTel appears to be:

A. constructive conflict.

B. legitimate conflict.

C. task-related conflict.

D. relationship conflict.

E. cooperation conflict.

318. How much you are located between others in a network is called your:

A. degree centrality.

B. visibility.

C. closeness.

D. betweenness.

E. discretion.

319. MoneySafe

MoneySafe, a financial services organization, uses performance-based reward systems across various

departments to keep employees directed toward organizational goals. The management believes that these

rewards might replace or reduce the need for task-oriented leadership.

Which of the following leadership styles is of least importance under these circumstances?

A. Authentic

B. Transformational

C. Task-oriented

D. People-oriented

E. Servant

320. Which of the following is an advantage of having moderate levels of organizational conflicts?

A. It helps reduce organizational politics.

B. It boosts employee motivation.

C. It promotes organizational cohesion.

D. It energizes people to evaluate alternatives.

E. It reduces distorted perceptions and stereotypes.

321. What effect does emotional contagion have on the communication process?

A. It distorts the communication process and causes dissatisfaction to all the parties involved.

B. It provides feedback to the sender that the receiver understands and empathizes with the message.

C. It reduces the level of actual communication among colleagues.

D. It makes it more difficult for the receiver to receive the emotional meaning of the sender's experience.

E. It forms a strong communication barrier between the sender and the receiver.

322. Which of the following types of third-party intervention approaches do managers usually adopt?

A. Inquisitional

B. Competitive

C. Mediation-based

D. Arbitration-based

E. Abstainer

323. _____ are unconscious, taken-for-granted perceptions or ideal prototypes of behavior that are considered

the correct way to think and act toward problems and opportunities.

A. Values

B. Organizational artifacts

C. Languages

D. Beliefs

E. Shared assumptions

324. When negotiators have an audience watching their progress in the negotiations, the audience's negotiator:

A. is more likely to give in to the other party's demands.

B. pays more attention to saving face.

C. feels and acts the same as if no one were viewing the negotiation.

D. tends to be more willing to make concessions to the other party.

E. tends to feel more cooperative and is more willing to make concessions to the other party.

325. Which of the following is an advantage associated with using written communication channels in

persuading people?

A. It can make better use of the social perceptions of individuals.

B. It can be used as a medium for richer communication.

C. It is better in presenting technical details.

D. It can be used to obtain high-quality immediate feedback.

E. It sends emotional and logical messages to receivers.

326. Which of the following is a characteristic of an adaptive corporate culture?

A. Employees hold a common mental model that the organization's success depends on their personal

wellbeing.

B. Employees continuously question past practices.

C. Employees tend to be more reactive.

D. Employees tend to take the view that any activity beyond their job description is not their job.

E. Employees are more individualistic and do not experiment with new ideas outside their work profiles.

327. Safety representatives in each of the six plants of a manufacturing company need to communicate to each

other every week the number and type of health and safety incidents in their plant. Each representative has a

safety reporting document where he or she notes the type and number of infractions during the previous week.

These incidents are well known to other representatives, so there are rarely any surprises. This weekly

communication calls for:

A. an active corporate grapevine.

B. high emotional contagion in communication.

C. the use of nonverbal communication.

D. increased number of face-to-face meetings.

E. lean media.

328. Networking potentially increases a person's power by:

A. increasing the person's legitimate power.

B. decreasing the person's centrality.

C. increasing the person's referent power.

D. decreasing the person's reward power.

E. increasing the person's coercive power.

329. _____ is knowing yourself and being yourself.

A. Authenticity

B. Integrity

C. Cognition

D. Humility

E. Drive

330. Salespeople at Widget Co. complain that they lose sales bonuses when the production department is out of

stock of a particular item. This sometimes causes customers to buy from elsewhere rather than wait for the next

production run. Meanwhile, production employees complain that salespeople don't appreciate the need to

minimize inventory costs, for which production staff is rewarded. This instance is an example of conflict due

to:

A. ambiguity.

B. technical incompetence of the production team.

C. pooled task interdependence.

D. differentiation.

E. goal incompatibility.

331. United FiberTech

Most employees at United FiberTech support the idea that the company's success depends on their willingness

to continually change and improve customer service.

United FiberTech probably has:

A. an adaptive culture.

B. many countercultures.

C. more subcultures than employees.

D. an unethical culture.

E. no corporate culture.

332. Communication flows in all directions with little concern for the formal hierarchy in a(n) _____ structure,

but this structure is costly to maintain due to the need for ongoing interpersonal skill training.

A. mechanistic

B. centralized

C. team-based

D. functional

E. divisional

333. ABC Production

ABC Production, a consumer products firm with a functional structure, is expanding from a single product line

into several diverse product groups, with most sales within one country. What form of departmentalization

should it eventually adopt to manage the new conditions most effectively?

A. Divisional geographic structure

B. Network structure

C. Matrix structure

D. Divisional product structure

E. Retain the functional structure

334. Based on the characteristics of constructive conflicts, which of the following would help a manager create

constructive conflicts during a debate?

A. Support the weaker members during the debate

B. Explain conflict in terms of interpersonal incompatibilities

C. Support the stronger members during the debate

D. Keep the debate focused on the issue

E. Maintain competitive orientation in the debate

335. Organizational stories are most effective at communicating organizational culture only when they:

A. make employees emotional.

B. are told by senior executives to the public.

C. describe real people and are assumed to be true.

D. are descriptive rather than prescriptive.

E. tend to pressurize individual performance.

336. Formalization in organizational structures tends to:

A. reduce organizational flexibility.

B. encourage organizational learning and creativity.

C. disperse decision authority and power throughout the organization.

D. increase organizational learning.

E. decrease efficiency and compliance.

337. Which of the following is true about socialization agents?

A. Socialization agents help integrate new employees into the team.

B. Socialization agents provide support on the basis of the compensation offered to do so.

C. Family support is an important socialization agent for new employees.

D. A strong corporate culture discourages socialization agents from doing their job.

E. Employers group socialization agents on the basis of their qualifications.

338. _______ is a system whereby newcomers are assigned to coworkers for sources of information and social

support.

A. Realistic job preview

B. Work ownership

C. Relational partnership

D. Psychological contract

E. The buddy system

339. Which of the following statements about the strength of organizational culture and organizational

performance is true?

A. Organizations with stronger cultures tend to perform better than those with weak cultures when the culture

content fits the external environment.

B. There is no relationship between an organization's cultural strength and its performance.

C. Organizations with stronger cultures tend to perform better only when they acquire other organizations with

distinct cultures.

D. Organizations with stronger cultures almost always perform poorly compared to those with weak cultures.

E. Organizations with stronger cultures perform poorly if they have subcultures.

340. Employees can expand the data-carrying capacity of lean media channel if they:

A. avoid emotional contagion.

B. are highly proficient with that communication channel.

C. are unfamiliar with the receiver of the information.

D. avoid using jargon and short-hand symbols in the communication.

E. are new to using that communication medium.

341. Communication noise can exist even when people speak the same language. This occurs because of the:

A. skill differences among people.

B. lack of necessary aptitudes.

C. richness of the communication channel.

D. reduced channel bandwidth.

E. cultural differences among people.

342. Several employees in a newly formed group must work together to develop a new product. No one in this

group has worked with anyone else in this group before and the development of this product has not been

attempted previously. According to the media richness model, which of the following communication channels

is most appropriate in this situation?

A. Written documents

B. Email

C. Face-to-face meetings

D. Bulletin boards

E. Financial statements

343. Genevieve makes sure that she walks by her boss's office several times a day and tries to greet and make

eye contact with her. She is trying to increase her:

A. visibility.

B. absorption.

C. centrality.

D. discretion.

E. persuasion.

344. Which of the following is a factor in social acceptance?

A. The symbolic meaning of the chosen channel

B. The media richness of the selected channel

C. The bandwidth of the channel

D. The diplomatic acceptance of the message

E. The content and accuracy of the message

345. In organizational communication, "flaming" generally refers to:

A. telling an employee in front of other people that he or she is fired.

B. ranting and raving in front of a large audience.

C. an emotionally charged email or other electronic message, usually one that communicates strong negative

emotions.

D. using any signal with the hands that conveys an obscene meaning to the receiver.

E. interrupting the speaker before he or she has finished talking.

346. The competency perspective of leadership identifies drive, integrity, and emotional intelligence as the:

A. substitutes for leadership.

B. main elements of situational leadership theory.

C. competencies of effective leaders.

D. contingencies in path-goal theory.

E. essential traits of engaging in managerial leadership.

347. Situations with both _______________ produce the highest risk of conflict.

A. Ambiguous rules and low task interdependence

B. Precise rules and resource scarcity

C. Plentiful resources and high goal compatibility

D. Scarce resources and high task interdependence

E. Strict rules and high task interdependence

348. In the context of organizational socialization, the adjustment process is better for:

A. those who rebel against and reject the company's dominant values.

B. employees who experience significant levels of reality shock.

C. newcomers with diverse work experience.

D. people who are able to avoid the encounter stage of socialization.

E. individuals who retain their personal identity.

349. According to path-goal theory, a combination of _____ leadership is best for employees who are (or

perceive themselves to be) inexperienced and unskilled.

A. achievement-oriented and directive

B. participative and directive

C. directive and supportive

D. supportive and achievement-oriented

E. supportive and participative

350. Introducing clear rules for resource allocation is one way of:

A. increasing the company's substitutability in the marketplace.

B. eliminating countervailing power in the organization.

C. reducing organizational politics regarding that decision.

D. applying the inoculation effect.

E. applying ingratiation.

351. Which of the following statements about countervailing power in organizational relationships is true?

A. Countervailing power prevents anyone else from having any power over you.

B. Countervailing power is used by the stronger party to prevent the weaker party from leaving the relationship.

C. Countervailing power is the weaker party's power to maintain the stronger party's continued participation in

the relationship.

D. Countervailing power is one of the ways that people gain power by coping with uncertainty.

E. Countervailing power is a personality characteristic of people who crave power.

352. Which of the following tends to happen when an organization's culture is misaligned with its external

environment?

A. The corporate culture gets stronger.

B. The organization's subcultures weaken.

C. The organization has more difficulty anticipating and responding to stakeholder needs.

D. The organization is unable to develop subcultures.

E. The various subcultures within the organization keep changing.

353. The themes shared most widely by employees represent:

A. the organization's dominant culture.

B. the organization's deculturation process.

C. the organization's counterculture.

D. artifacts held mainly by senior executives in the organization.

E. rituals prevalent in the organization.

354. _____ leadership includes showing mutual trust and respect for subordinates and having a desire to look

out for their welfare.

A. Task-oriented

B. People-oriented

C. Achievement-oriented

D. Transaction-oriented

E. Participation-oriented

355. EFT, Inc.

EFT, Inc. wants to empower and engage its employees. They have several teams consisting of highly skilled

employees and no one person on these teams has a specifically assigned position. Instead, employees lead each

other as the occasion arises so there is no formal hierarchy or organizational chart.

This type of leadership is most effective when:

A. there is an internally competitive culture.

B. employees learn to influence others through their enthusiasm, logical analysis, and involvement of others in

their vision.

C. coworkers maintain separate work areas and do not involve themselves with others work.

D. employees have a fear of failure.

E. there is a learning orientation culture.

356. Shanti's Workshop

Shanti recently went to a communication workshop to help improve her workplace performance. She learned

that in effective communication, she should resist forming an opinion until the speaker has finished, then

attempt to empathize with the listener, and finally effectively respond to the speaker. She learned techniques

regarding maintain eye contact and sending back channel signals to show interest.

When Shanti attempts to empathize with the speaker, this is known as:

A. Sensing

B. Evaluating

C. Understanding

D. Responding

E. Identification

357. Johni's Company

Johni is the CEO of a struggling company. She has listened to her employee's complaints and concerns about

where the corporation is going and has developed a new vision that she feels will help develop a common bond

throughout the organization. Johni then hosted a company-wide picnic where she delivered an inspiring speech

about the new plans for the business, including her plans for more open communication between management

and employees. After her speech, management and employees all participated in trust building exercises and

each employee had a one-on-one conversation with Johni.

What is the next step Johni should take if she wants to continue on towards her vision?

A. Build commitment toward the vision.

B. Empower the employees to build the vision further.

C. Model the vision.

D. Communicate the vision.

E. Develop a strategic vision.

358. The process of organizational socialization begins:

A. as soon as the person is hired by the organization.

B. within the employee's first week on the job.

C. long before the first day of work for the organization.

D. when the employee finally reconciles pre-employment expectations with organizational reality.

E. when the employee receives his or her first performance appraisal.

359. The pre-employment stage of organizational socialization would be more effective if:

A. employers avoided forming a psychological contract.

B. employers and job applicants gave and received accurate information about each other.

C. employers and applicants experienced reality shock when meeting each other for the first time.

D. job applicants distorted their resume in order to get the job offered.

E. the applicants kept a clean slate and avoided searching for information on the company and forming

expectations.

360. Which of the following networking styles increases a person's expert power?

A. Gaining valuable information through networking

B. Identifying people who are in the same network as you

C. Making decisions in favorable to others

D. Recognizing talents

E. Placing oneself in a strategic position in the network

361. Which of the following communication channels has the lowest media richness?

A. Newsletter

B. Email

C. Telephone call

D. Video conference

E. Instant messaging

362. _____ is the degree to which organizations standardize behavior through rules, procedures, formal training,

and related mechanisms.

A. Departmentalization

B. Span of control

C. Formalization

D. Centralization

E. Division of labor

363. Flatter organizational structures:

A. tend to reduce overhead costs.

B. receive lower quality information from the external environment.

C. undermine employee empowerment and engagement.

D. receive less timely information from the external environment.

E. narrow the span of control for supervisors.

364. Team-based organizational structures are usually found:

A. in the manufacturing operations of larger divisionalized structures.

B. in organizations that organize employees around distinct regions of the country or world.

C. in matrix organizations.

D. in government departments and agencies.

E. in stand-alone organizations that have no other organizational structures.

365. Which of the following forms of departmentalization organizes employees around specific skills or other

resources?

A. Divisional structure

B. Functional structure

C. Simple structure

D. Matrix structure

E. Network structure

366. Active listeners improve their sensing activities by:

A. forming an opinion early in the process.

B. postponing evaluation of the message.

C. clarifying the message during presentation.

D. estimating the learning often.

E. maintaining a casual posture when listening.

367. Which of the following statements about emotional intelligence and leadership is true?

A. Emotional intelligence is one of the most frequently identified contingencies of employees when choosing

the best leadership style.

B. Emotional intelligence is one of the desired competencies of effective leaders.

C. Emotional intelligence is the psychological condition that makes people want to believe that leaders make a

difference.

D. Emotional intelligence refers to the leader's above-average cognitive ability to process information.

E. Emotional intelligence makes leaders function with a managerial rather than a transformational orientation.

368. Which of the following is true about the organizational grapevine?

A. The grapevine presents a true picture of reality by providing fine details to substantiate the content.

B. The grapevine typically works by sending information downward rather than upward through the

organizational hierarchy.

C. The grapevine is usually founded on organizational charts or job descriptions rather than social relationships.

D. The grapevine is a structured and formal network for transmitting organizational information.

E. The typical pattern of a grapevine is a cluster chain, whereby a few people actively transmit rumors to many

others.

369. Betweenness gives power because the more of it you have:

A. the more it increases your visibility.

B. the more you control the distribution of information and other resources to people on either side of you.

C. the shorter your paths to many people in the network.

D. the fewer demands people make on you.

E. the more people are connected to you.

370. Constructive conflict:

A. is the opposite of task-related conflict and often involves verbal attacks.

B. encourages employees to re-examine their basic assumptions about a problem and its possible solutions.

C. is apparent when the conflict is explained in terms of interpersonal incompatibilities.

D. is more likely to trigger defense mechanisms and a competitive orientation among team members.

E. sometimes replaces manifest conflict in the conflict escalation process.

371. Creative Advertising Corp. wants its 100 employees to work together around specific clients yet maintain

an equal emphasis on alignment with their skill specializations (advertising, graphics, copywriting and public

relations). Which of the following organizational structures would work best for Creative Advertising Corp.?

A. Geographical divisional structure

B. Simple structure with client-based divisional structure

C. Network structure

D. Client-based divisionalized form

E. Matrix structure that overlays project teams with a functional structure

372. A steel manufacturing firm with about 1,000 employees operates in an environment that is simple and

integrated (it makes a small number of steel products to a few key customers) but also dynamic and hostile

(rapidly changing technology and customer needs with many competitors). Based on the environment in which

this company operates, it would be more successful with a(n):

A. organic structure.

B. centralized structure.

C. divisionalized structure.

D. matrix structure.

E. mechanistic structure.

373. Employees at SuperTech Services seek out opportunities rather than wait for them to arrive. They also have

a strong learning orientation. This implies that SuperTech has:

A. a weak organizational culture.

B. a strong counterculture.

C. relatively few artifacts representing the organization's culture.

D. a culture that is misaligned with its external environment.

E. an adaptive culture.

374. Food4U

Food4U, a wholesale grocery business, operates in one city and provides one service - stocking retailers with

fresh produce. The company wants to ensure that employees develop expertise in their skill specialization and

that these specializations are used efficiently.

A potential problem with this form of structure is:

A. inefficient resource utilization.

B. increased costs.

C. excessive focus on clients.

D. ambiguous accountability.

E. higher dysfunctional conflict.

375. Successful leaders have a positive self-evaluation, including high self-esteem, self-efficacy, and internal

locus of control. This refers to the leaders' _____.

A. drives

B. self-concept

C. cognitive intelligence

D. emotional intelligence

E. leadership motivation

376. Which of the following is a third-party conflict resolution strategy with low process control and high

decision control?

A. Inquisition

B. Arbitration

C. Mediation

D. Imposition

E. Compromise

377. According to the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory, job applicants:

A. with a variety of personal characteristics are preferred by organizations, resulting in a more heterogeneous

organization.

B. avoid employment in companies whose values seem incompatible with their own values.

C. do not typically pay much heed to organizational values when applying for work.

D. avoid other applicants if they are competing for the same jobs.

E. are attracted to companies who are likely to provide them with the greatest financial rewards.

378. "Report talk" is characterized by:

A. Giving advice indirectly

B. Apologizing less frequently

C. Flexible conversation style

D. Sensitivity to nonverbal cues

E. Relationship building

379. Which of the following sources of conflict is typically associated with mergers and acquisitions, where

everyone wants the company to succeed, but they fight over the "right way" to do things because of their unique

experiences in the separate companies?

A. Task interdependence

B. Differentiation

C. Goal incompatibility

D. Scarce resources

E. Disintermediation

380. For everyday disputes between two employees, managers should use _____ as a third-party intervention.

A. inquisition

B. mediation

C. arbitration

D. retaliation

E. negotiation

381. Which of the following is true about impression management?

A. Employees rarely engage in pleasant impression management behavior to satisfy the basic norms of social

behavior.

B. Career professionals do not encourage impression management.

C. Impression management is part of a larger category of influence tactics known as ingratiation.

D. It is not common for people to rely on impression management to get ahead in the workplace.

E. People who engage in high levels of ingratiation are less influential and less likely to get promoted.

382. NewTel, Inc.

NewTel is a telephone company with a policy of filling positions internally through promotions, rather than

hiring from outside. Until recently, the company had a strong engineering focus and tended to promote people

into senior executive positions from the engineering areas. Consequently, almost all of the company's 14 senior

executives joined the company over 20 years ago in junior engineering positions. There is increasing pressure

on NewTel to become more marketing and service-oriented. As a result, four people were hired last year from

consumer products and retail firms to fill new senior executive positions in marketing and service management.

The external hires were necessary because current employees were not sufficiently qualified. Now there are

signs of tension among senior executives, particularly during budget deliberations where there is limited

discretionary spending on new corporate activities. The four new hires have been frustrated in their attempts to

have the company put more money into marketing and customer services instead of technology investment and

blame the senior executives for being hard-headed. The conflict episodes are viewed by both sides as personal

attacks rather than attempts to resolve the problem.

The four new hires' have been attempting to have the company put more money into marketing and customer

services instead of technology investment. This is mainly an example of conflict due to:

A. role ambiguity.

B. lack of communication.

C. sequential task interdependence.

D. overt behaviors.

E. goal incompatibility.

383. Charlotte International

Employees at Charlotte International have been frustrated with the management on just about everything. The

conflict episodes are viewed by both sides as personal attacks rather than attempts to resolve problems. Both

sides have decided to seek third-party dispute resolution. Management prefers a third-party intervention that has

high process and decision control while employees prefer a high level of process control and not decision

control.

Management at Charlotte International appears to prefer which of the following types of third-party

intervention?

A. Arbitrator

B. Competitor

C. Mediator

D. Inquisitor

E. Abstainer

384. Social networks exist everywhere because people:

A. have a drive to bond.

B. are insecure.

C. are all extroverted.

D. have a need to defend their territory.

E. need to be visible.

385. As organizations grow older, they tend to:

A. become more formalized.

B. have a more centralized structure.

C. move toward a simple form of departmentalization.

D. shift from a mechanistic to an organic structure.

E. operate with a wide span of control and less standardization.

386. Organizational behavior research indicates that transformational leaders produce _____ followers, whereas

charismatic leaders produce dependent followers.

A. unskilled

B. directive

C. empowered

D. real

E. servant

387. Shanti's Workshop

Shanti recently went to a communication workshop to help improve her workplace performance. She learned

that in effective communication, she should resist forming an opinion until the speaker has finished, then

attempt to empathize with the listener, and finally effectively respond to the speaker. She learned techniques

regarding maintain eye contact and sending back channel signals to show interest.

This type of listening is known as:

A. Participative

B. Dynamic

C. Active

D. Evaluative

E. Communicatory

388. Effective managers should:

A. increase the amount of conflict among employees.

B. remove all forms of conflict from the organization, because it saps productivity.

C. remove manifest conflict as well as negative conflict outcomes even though the sources of conflict remain in

place.

D. convince employees to engage in relationship conflict rather than the other forms of conflict.

E. minimize the relationship conflicts that exist in the organization.

389. Direct communication minimizes conflict by:

A. reducing task interdependence.

B. reducing reliance on stereotypes about the other party.

C. creating organizational buffers.

D. reducing the differentiation in the work force.

E. increasing the available resources.

390. Which of the following is an artifact?

A. Values

B. Language

C. Assumptions

D. Beliefs

E. Corporate cult

391. Coordination of work activities is:

A. required whenever there is division of labor.

B. required only in team-based organizations.

C. required whenever the organization has more than approximately 100 employees.

D. required only when organizations operate in complex environments.

E. discouraged in organizations as it leads to a high degree of interdependence among employees.

392. Which of the following organizational design elements determines the sharing of resources and encourages

coordination through informal communication?

A. Span of control

B. Formalization

C. Centralization

D. Departmentalization

E. Standardization

393. BarkBark Inc. and Happy Toys Ltd.

BarkBark Inc. and Happy Toys Ltd. are considering a merger and are unsure whether their two organizations

will have a difficult time with clashing cultures. They perform a detailed diagnosis collecting and analyzing the

gathered data about the two merging companies. They identify a several overlapping values which they feel that

they can effectively meld into a cohesive new culture.

This process is known as:

A. assimilation.

B. deculturation.

C. a bicultural audit.

D. a merger strategy.

E. a cultural review.

394. The main objective of force field analysis is to help change agents to:

A. identify ways to control the external environment.

B. find ways to increase the driving forces for change.

C. diagnose a situation better by understanding the driving and restraining forces for change.

D. determine whether change is necessary in the organization or not.

E. determine and single out the force that causes organizational resistance for change.

395. According to studies of task- and people-oriented leadership effectiveness, the best leaders:

A. Rely on task-oriented behaviors

B. Rely on people-oriented behaviors

C. Use both task-oriented and people-oriented behaviors

D. Research studies do not support any relationship between leader behaviors and leader effectiveness

E. Research has not been done on this topic

396. Tammy

Tammy recently earned her degree in nursing and has begun a career path in the surgical ward at a local

hospital. Her training program consists of a year-long internship, working with senior nurses. While in school,

Tammy worked in a medical lab performing routine blood tests. The lab technician job required her to take a

two-week course and refer to a procedures manual for her work on a daily basis.

Which coordinating mechanism was most important in Tammy's job as a lab technician?

A. Direct supervision

B. Integrator roles

C. Job descriptions

D. Extensive training

E. Decentralization

397. Which of the following is a consequence of power?

A. Employees who feel more power feel dissatisfied.

B. When people become more powerful, they hide from their environment.

C. Increasing power over others can potentially undermine an individual's effectiveness and interpersonal

relations.

D. Powerful people gain the added skill of empathizing with subordinates.

E. People with power engage in mindful thinking and are concerned about the consequences of their actions.

398. EFT, Inc.

EFT, Inc. wants to empower and engage its employees. They have several teams consisting of highly skilled

employees and no one person on these teams has a specifically assigned position. Instead, employees lead each

other as the occasion arises so there is no formal hierarchy or organizational chart.

This type of leadership is known as:

A. Shared

B. Servant

C. Managerial

D. People-oriented

E. Transformational

399. Legitimate power occurs when:

A. the manager can remove negative sanctions.

B. the manager is able to reward or punish the employees.

C. the manager has the capacity to influence others on the basis of identification with and respect for the powerholder.

D. employees are blinded by the manager's charisma.

E. it is agreed that people in certain roles can request certain behaviors of others.

400. The simple structure usually depends on _____ to coordinate work activities, so it is very difficult to

operate as the company grows and becomes more complex.

A. the owner's direct supervision

B. standardization through formal instructions

C. formal training (standardizing skills)

D. standardization of product or service outputs

E. decentralization

401. Which of the following organizational culture dimension is characterized by competitiveness and a low

emphasis on social responsibility?

A. Stability

B. Innovation

C. Outcome orientation

D. Aggressiveness

E. Respect for people

402. Tammy

Tammy recently earned her degree in nursing and has begun a career path in the surgical ward at a local

hospital. Her training program consists of a year-long internship, working with senior nurses. While in school,

Tammy worked in a medical lab performing routine blood tests. The lab technician job required her to take a

two-week course and refer to a procedures manual for her work on a daily basis.

Which coordinating mechanism is most important in Tammy's new career as a surgical nurse?

A. Direct supervision

B. An integrator role

C. Job descriptions

D. Extensive training

E. Decentralization

403. Food4U

Food4U, a wholesale grocery business, operates in one city and provides one service - stocking retailers with

fresh produce. The company wants to ensure that employees develop expertise in their skill specialization and

that these specializations are used efficiently.

What form of departmentalization would be most appropriate here?

A. Simple structure

B. Matrix structure

C. Geographic divisional structure

D. Functional structure

E. Product divisional structure

404. Effective leaders have a strong need for socialized power, meaning that they want power as a means to

accomplish organizational objectives and similar good deeds. This behavior of leaders refers to:

A. emotional intelligence.

B. cognitive intelligence.

C. integrity.

D. drive.

E. leadership motivation.

405. Done correctly, MBWA most likely occurs on a _____ basis.

A. annual

B. semi-annual

C. quarterly

D. monthly

E. daily or weekly

406. Senior executives at a large tire company learned that a line of tires had a tendency to fall apart in very

warm weather. This resulted in several vehicle accidents in the Middle East and South America. However, the

executives did not hear about these problems until several weeks after the lower-level managers learned about

the same. Although the senior executives encourage staff to openly communicate all information, the lowerlevel

staff held back the information for fear that they might lose their jobs. Which communication concept best

describes this communication situation?

A. Media richness

B. Persuasive communication

C. Filtering

D. Flaming

E. Information overload

407. Active listeners improve their evaluating activities by:

A. organizing the information provided in the speech.

B. forming an opinion before presentation.

C. clarifying the message.

D. interrupting when they disagree with the speaker.

E. constructively criticizing of all the ideas presented.

408. Conflict is best defined as:

A. any event where two parties demonstrate their dislike of each other.

B. any occasion where both parties perceive each other as a threat to achieving the other party's goals.

C. a process in which one party perceives that its interests are being opposed or negatively affected by another

party.

D. any event where one party acts in a way that prevents another party from achieving its goals.

E. a process in which each party tries to learn the resistance point of the other party.

409. Which of the following is a "hard" influence tactic?

A. Ingratiation

B. Upward appeal

C. Persuasion

D. Visibility

E. Exchange

410. Dividing work into more specialized jobs:

A. increases training costs.

B. reduces work efficiency.

C. reduces the opportunity to match people with appropriate jobs.

D. increases the time taken in changing from one task to another.

E. gives an opportunity to the job incumbents to master their tasks quickly.

411. _____ are employees who coordinate the activities of differentiated work units toward the completion of a

common task.

A. Inquisitors

B. Arbitrators

C. Mediators

D. Integrators

E. Moderators

412. The more you fill structural holes in a network, the more likely you are to:

A. be laid off or demoted.

B. be seen as someone who engaged in unethical practices.

C. engage in impression management.

D. be taken advantage of by others in the network.

E. get early promotions and higher pay.

413. Which of the following is a strategy specifically identified to improve face-to-face communication among

employees?

A. Filtering

B. Buffering

C. Encouraging an active grapevine

D. Open workspace arrangements

E. Use of jargon

414. Which of the following is an increasing source of information overload?

A. Electronic company magazines

B. Annual performance reviews with supervisors

C. Intranet web sites

D. Email

E. The corporate grapevine

415. Which of the following is the most accurate definition of leadership?

A. Leadership refers to transforming the day-to-day activities of an organization to increase its effectiveness.

B. Leadership refers to the personality traits of an individual which makes him or her guide an organization to

better performance and effectiveness.

C. Leadership refers to the abilities of an individual to act according to the changes in the environment.

D. Leadership is influencing, motivating, and enabling others to contribute toward the effectiveness and success

of the organizations.

E. Leadership refers to the capabilities of certain individuals to introduce successful changes in organizational

performance.

416. Which of the following leadership theories or perspectives explicitly includes the participative and the

directive styles?

A. Competency (trait) perspective

B. Transformational leadership theory

C. Implicit leadership perspective

D. Path-goal theory

E. Managerial leadership perspective

417. Task-oriented leaders:

A. establish challenging goals.

B. develop mutual trust and respect for subordinates.

C. listen to employees' suggestions.

D. do personal favors for employees.

E. establish a personal relationship with employees.

418. Implicit leadership theory states that:

A. everyone is capable of being an effective leader.

B. the best leadership style depends on both the characteristics of employees and the environment in which they

work.

C. leadership is a perception, not the actual behaviors and competencies of people.

D. everyone has preconceived beliefs about leaders.

E. leaders should act as change agents in organizations.

419. The effectiveness of _____ as an influence tactic depends on characteristics of the power holder, message

content, communication medium, and the audience.

A. coalition forming

B. upward appeal

C. persuasion

D. information control

E. silent authority

420. Employees have _____, ranging from sarcasm to ostracism, to ensure that coworkers conform to team

norms.

A. reward power

B. legitimate power

C. referent power

D. expert power

E. coercive power

421. BarkBark Inc. and Happy Toys Ltd.

BarkBark Inc. and Happy Toys Ltd. are considering a merger and are unsure whether their two organizations

will have a difficult time with clashing cultures. They perform a detailed diagnosis collecting and analyzing the

gathered data about the two merging companies. They identify a several overlapping values which they feel that

they can effectively meld into a cohesive new culture.

What type of cultural merge would be best in this situation?

A. integration

B. deculturation

C. assimilation

D. separation

E. incorporation

422. Which of the following has the same meaning around the world?

A. Silence

B. Shaking one's head

C. Smiling

D. Raising one's eyebrows

E. Eye contact

423. Active listeners can improve their responding by:

A. Keeping their feedback to themselves

B. Not making eye contact

C. Keeping silent

D. Rephrasing speaker's ideas at appropriate breaks

E. Asking irrelevant questions

424. Freer trade, advances in information technology, and more global customers are pressuring many large

global companies to:

A. shift away from geographically-based to more client-based divisionalized structures.

B. increase direct supervision as the main coordinating mechanism.

C. shift away from divisionalized structures into functional structures.

D. disband their team-based structures in favor of simple structures.

E. shift from functional structures to geographically-based divisionalized structures.

425. The potential for conflict between two employees would be highest under conditions of _____

interdependence.

A. pooled

B. total

C. reciprocal

D. anticipatory

E. sequential

426. A divisionalized structure is recommended mainly for:

A. stable environments.

B. diverse environments.

C. munificent environments.

D. integrated environments.

E. simple environments.

427. One of the first steps to minimize a cultural clash in a merger is to:

A. significantly reduce the strength of the culture in both the organizations.

B. conduct a bicultural audit.

C. significantly increase the strength of the culture in both organizations.

D. replace the chief executives in both organizations before merger negotiations begin.

E. replace the employees with new ones.

428. Which of the following statements is most consistent with the view of shared leadership?

A. Shared leadership operates out of one formally assigned position shared by two employees.

B. Leaders should share their power and responsibility to avoid self-serving bias among employees.

C. Leadership of an organization is broadly distributed rather than assigned to one person.

D. For organizations to move from autocratic to democratic institutions, shared leadership must be

implemented.

E. A team should have more than one leader to perform effectively.

429. A deculturation strategy of merging two corporate cultures should be applied:

A. when employees at the acquired company willingly embrace the cultural values of the acquiring

organization.

B. when both firms operate successfully in different industries.

C. when employees in the acquired firm want to hold on to their firm's culture even though it does not fit the

external environment.

D. when both the firms have weak cultures.

E. when the merging companies agree to remain distinct entities with minimal exchange of culture or

organizational practices.

430. _____ involves calling upon higher authority or expertise, or symbolically relying on these sources to

support the influencer's position.

A. Ingratiation

B. Assertiveness

C. Machiavellianism

D. Exchange

E. Upward appeal

431. Transformational leaders:

A. improve the operational efficiency of an organization.

B. support the current strategy and ensure that the employees perform tasks more effectively.

C. energize and direct employees to a new vision and corresponding behaviors.

D. help employees become more proficient and satisfied in the current situation.

E. influence employees by negotiating services from them.

432. Your centrality in a social network is determined by your:

A. betweenness, closeness, and degree centrality.

B. betweenness, visibility, and discretion.

C. closeness, discretion, and visibility.

D. closeness, degree centrality, and visibility.

E. visibility, discretion, and degree centrality.

433. What is the major function of integrators in an organization?

A. Reducing interdependence

B. Clarifying rules and procedures

C. Increasing resources

D. Reducing differentiation

E. Improving understanding

434. An organization's culture begins with its _____.

A. clients

B. country-level managers

C. employees

D. founders and leaders

E. auditors

435. According to the _____ perspective of leadership, leadership is associated with the personal characteristics

of the person.

A. shared

B. competency

C. managerial

D. contingency

E. implicit

436. Arbitration has a _________ level of control over the final outcome and a ______ level of control over the

process.

A. high; low

B. high; high

C. low; high

D. low; low

E. moderate; low

437. The unstructured and informal organizational network that is founded in social relationships rather than

organization charts or job descriptions is called:

A. The codebook

B. The jargon

C. The grapevine

D. The rumor mill

E. The jungle

438. What is the significance of artifacts in organizational culture?

A. Artifacts are the same as organizational culture.

B. Artifacts are the residual parts of the organization that cannot fit into its culture.

C. Artifacts represent the directly observable symbols and signs of an organization's culture.

D. Artifacts are the main observable indicators that the organization does not have a culture.

E. Artifacts mainly reflect the subcultures that conflict with an organization's dominant culture.

439. Team-based organizations have:

A. hourly wages and generous employee benefits.

B. supervisors as the main source of direction and control.

C. a tall hierarchy.

D. communities of practice.

E. a wide span of control.

440. CPA4U

Gina and Chen are both managers at CPA4U, a large accounting firm. Each has a very different management

style. Gina is very outgoing and constantly checking on her subordinates to see if there is any way she can help

them to complete their projects. She also brings in fresh flowers for the lunchroom weekly and always

remembers everyone's birthday. Chen is much more introverted and communicates with his subordinates mainly

through email and he has his subordinates submit daily reports on their progress towards the weekly goals he

has assigned them.

Which type of leader is Gina?

A. Servant leader

B. Emotional leader

C. Path-goal leader

D. Task-oriented leader

E. Transformational Leader

441. In terms of managing social networks, organizational leaders should:

A. ignore them; they are irrelevant.

B. forbid employees from engaging in them, as they damage the formal structure of the organization.

C. be aware of them, as they reflect the real distribution of power.

D. manage them by appointing specific people to monitor them.

E. engage heavily on a personal level with all social networks in the organization.

442. Which of these refers to the degree and nature of interdependence between the power holder and others?

A. Visibility

B. Substitutability

C. Centrality

D. Discretion

E. Expertise

443. You have resolved a conflict with another department by offsetting your losses by equally valued gains.

Which of the following conflict handling styles is used here?

A. Forcing

B. Yielding

C. Avoiding

D. Compromising

E. Problem-solving

444. People with expertise tend to have more influence using persuasion, whereas those with a strong legitimate

power base are usually more successful applying _____.

A. upward appeal

B. coalition formation

C. silent authority

D. assertiveness

E. information control

445. Which of the following types of resistance to change is a strategy to "prove" that the decision is wrong?

A. Negative valence of change

B. Not-invented-here syndrome

C. Fear of the unknown

D. Breaking routines

E. Incongruent organizational systems

446. Which of the following statements is consistent with the attraction-selection-attrition (ASA) theory?

A. Job applicants who later become organizational members tend to be attracted to co-workers who share their

values and assumptions.

B. Organizations have a natural tendency to attract, select, and retain people with values that are consistent with

the organization's own culture.

C. Attraction, selection and attrition are part of the natural life-cycle of organizational members.

D. Employees get attached to organizations that meet their reward expectations.

E. Attraction followed by selection inevitably leads to attrition in the future.

447. A speaker can be more persuasive by warning the audience about potential opposing arguments. This is

called:

A. impression management.

B. the inoculation effect.

C. ingratiation.

D. an emotional appeal.

E. a structural hole.

448. _____ is an integral part of exchange.

A. Silent authority

B. Coerciveness

C. Ingratiation

D. Negotiation

E. Assertiveness

449. Angela wears a business suit to work every day in her job as a college business professor. Which of the

following influence tactic does this refer to?

A. Persuasion

B. Forming coalitions

C. Networking

D. Impression management

E. Exchange

450. An individual's beliefs about the terms and conditions of a reciprocal exchange agreement between him or

herself and an employer is called a:

A. Psychological contract

B. Relational contract

C. Transactional contract

D. Mental model

E. Realistic job preview

451. The norm of reciprocity is a central and explicit theme in _____ strategies.

A. persuasion

B. exchange

C. upward appeal

D. impression management

E. coalition

452. Beswick Company

Your team is allocated a project involving a major client, the Beswick Company. Although the organization has

many clients, this client, and project, is the largest source of revenue and affects the work of several other teams

in the organization. The project requires continuous involvement with the client, so any problems with the client

are immediately felt by others in the organization.

According to the model of power, your team has:

A. very little power in the organization.

B. a high degree of centrality.

C. a high degree of substitutability.

D. a low level of visibility.

E. an absence of referent power.

453. The capacity of a communication medium to transmit information is referred to as:

A. media richness.

B. information overload.

C. channel frequency.

D. channel diversity.

E. communication frequency.

454. According to the situational leadership theory developed by Hersey and Blanchard, effective leaders

should vary their style with the:

A. ability and motivation of followers.

B. availability of leadership substitutes.

C. leader's capacity to engage in participative management.

D. leader's integrity, influence, and other traits or competencies.

E. leaders' personality and perceptions.

455. A team-based organizational structure has a:

A. tall organizational hierarchy.

B. high degree of formalization.

C. decentralized organization structure.

D. mechanistic organizational structure.

E. narrow span of control.

456. During which of the following stages of socialization do people first learn about the organization and job?

A. Role management

B. Encounter

C. Pre-employment

D. Probation

E. Orientation

457. Initial offer points, target points, and resistance points represent three elements in:

A. the conflict process model.

B. the bargaining zone model.

C. the types of third-party conflict resolution.

D. the sources of conflict.

E. the conflict escalation cycle.

458. People tend to evaluate female leaders slightly less favorably than male leaders because:

A. women tend to adopt a directive style of leadership.

B. people have more trust in authoritarian leadership than participative leadership.

C. they tend to rely on gender stereotypes and prototypes of leaders.

D. women tend to use one leadership style whereas effective leaders use many styles.

E. women are more people-oriented than task-oriented.

459. Trendy Fashions

Trendy Fashions, a large retail chain, is experiencing conflict and organizational politics among its managers.

The company's customer service ratings are suffering and managers are pointing to other departments as the

cause of the problem. The conflicts and politics are further contributing to the customer service problems. The

CEO of this chain has just heard about the appreciative inquiry process and thinks this might be a good

technique to use to improve this situation. He needs more information on this process.

The CEO of Trendy Fashions should know that the four stages of appreciative inquiry, in order, are:

A. problem identification, envisioning, choosing the best solution, and appreciating.

B. dialoguing, innovating, creating, and appreciating.

C. problem identification, causal analysis, recommended solutions, and choosing the best solution.

D. discovery, dreaming, designing, and delivering.

E. problem identification, envisioning, performing, and evaluating.

460. Bob's Small Business

Bob owns a small business with 12 employees. He is anticipating a large contract in the near future which he

hopes will triple his profit and double the number of employees he will hire. Bob has always been a very likable

man and a dependable, hard-working person. He is very worried about his ability to take on twice as many

employees and continue on a successful path.

From the information provided, which of the following best encompasses Bob's strongest leadership

competency according to the competency perspective?

A. Self-concept

B. Integrity

C. Cognitive intelligence

D. Personality characteristics

E. Practical intelligence

461. Which of these forces are commonly called resistance to change?

A. Process forces

B. Driving forces

C. Parallel learning structures

D. Restraining forces

E. Unfreezing forces

462. The "optimal conflict" perspective on organizational conflict is that:

A. conflict should be minimized across all departments.

B. conflicts could be promoted in some functions and discouraged in some others.

C. conflict is an inevitable result of increased technology and globalization.

D. use of technology and virtual teams could minimize organizational conflicts.

E. moderate levels of conflict are necessary and produce favorable outcomes.

463. Span of control, centralization, and formalization together form a cluster around two broader

organizational forms called:

A. hierarchical and delayered structures.

B. networked and team-based structures.

C. geographic and product/client divisions.

D. organic and mechanistic structures.

E. diverse and integrated structures.

464. The bargaining zone model states that:

A. the physical space around the negotiations affects the negotiation outcome.

B. the negotiation process moves each party along a continuum in opposite directions with an area of potential

overlap.

C. the best negotiations occur in a neutral territory.

D. negotiators must try to move the other party from a win-lose orientation towards a win-win orientation.

E. win-lose negotiations typically begin by each party communicating its resistance point.

465. The problem-solving interpersonal style of conflict has:

A. high assertiveness and low cooperativeness.

B. high assertiveness and high cooperativeness.

C. low assertiveness and high cooperativeness.

D. low assertiveness and low cooperativeness.

E. medium assertiveness and medium cooperativeness.

466. Charisma refers to:

A. the personal traits that provide referent power over others.

B. the traits that lead to managerial leadership.

C. the situational traits that lead to transformational leadership.

D. the people-oriented behaviors displayed by individuals.

E. any situation where followers attribute positive things to leaders who do not really deserve this credit.

467. When merging two organizations, a separation strategy is most commonly applied when:

A. both companies have relatively weak cultures that are generally ineffective.

B. one company has an effective culture and employees at the other company would embrace that culture if

applied to them.

C. the two organizations operate in distinct industries.

D. the acquired firm's culture doesn't work, whereas the culture of the acquiring firm does work.

E. a bicultural audit reveals that both companies have very similar cultures.

468. Which of the following immediately follows conflict perceptions and emotions in the conflict process?

A. Sources of conflict

B. Manifest conflict

C. Conflict outcomes

D. Conflict management

E. Conflict beliefs

469. Which of the following happens during the pre-employment stage of organizational socialization?

A. Conflicts are resolved between work and nonwork activities.

B. Employees form expectations (a psychological contract) about working at that organization.

C. Reality shock is experienced.

D. Newcomers test how well their pre-employment expectations fit reality.

E. Applicants strengthen relationships with coworkers and supervisors.

470. Fiedler's contingency model of leadership has made an important and lasting contribution to the study of

leadership because it:

A. is the only leadership theory to adopt a contingency approach.

B. was the first theory to recognize the existence of leadership substitutes.

C. suggests that organizations need to engineer the situation to fit the leader's preferred style.

D. discovered that effective leaders do not have a common set of competencies.

E. is the only theory to adopt the implicit leadership perspective.

471. Which of the following sources of power originates from the power holder's own characteristics?

A. Legitimate power

B. Coercive power

C. Expert power

D. Reward power

E. Formal power

472. Which of these statements about organizational stories is true?

A. Organizational stories are just stories; most employees have a hard time believing them.

B. Stories communicate organizational culture if they describe positive events, whereas they undermine

organizational culture if they describe negative events.

C. Organizational stories are descriptive, but not prescriptive.

D. Stories are most effective at communicating corporate culture when they describe real events with real

people.

E. Organizational stories advise people what not to do, but leave out the solutions and suggestions.

473. Which of the following precedes conflict outcomes in the conflict process?

A. Manifest conflict

B. Conflict emotions

C. Conflict beliefs

D. Conflict perceptions

E. Conflict sources

474. DoubleTalk, Inc.

At DoubleTalk, Inc., Joe, a supervisor, pushes his employees' performance by constantly checking their work

and threatening them if they fail to keep their deadlines. After months of mistreatment, the employees get

together and sign a letter to the human resources department to express their grievances.

What form of influence are the employees using?

A. Impression management

B. Coalition formation

C. Referent

D. Assertiveness

E. Persuasion

475. Which of the following refers to "walking the talk"?

A. The leader uses metaphors to symbolize the vision to the employees.

B. The leader continuously works as a part of a team to know them better.

C. The leader provides specific instructions to help employees understand the task requirements.

D. The leader steps out and behaves in ways that symbolize the vision.

E. The leader continuously analyzes the path that the organization is taking.

476. Which of the following is NOT a source of power in a social network?

A. Information

B. Visibility

C. Referent power

D. Isolation

E. Expertise

477. When a sender and receiver belonging to the same group want to transmit technical information more

efficiently, they should use:

A. jargon that they both understand.

B. information filtering.

C. mediators in communication.

D. nonverbal communication.

E. formal written communication.

478. The three stages of organizational socialization, in order, are:

A. pre-hire, pre-employment, and post-hire.

B. newcomer, insider, and outsider.

C. attraction, selection, and socialization.

D. pre-employment, encounter, and role management.

E. anticipation, encounter, and disillusionment.

479. In approaching a negotiation, skilled negotiators begin by:

A. Adopting a hardline stance.

B. Adopting a cautious problem-solving style.

C. Sharing all their information.

D. Explaining their resistance point.

E. Staying silent.

480. Which of the following is a verbal symbol of cultural values?

A. Speeches at ceremonies

B. Expressions of anger

C. Shared assumptions

D. Beliefs

E. Rituals

481. Which of the following does ingratiation include?

A. flattering a boss

B. offering advice to the employees

C. listening to counterarguments

D. relying on the influencer's position

E. appearing neutral

482. Hogan Company

A new employee in the finance department of the Hogan Company prominently displays diplomas and past

awards indicating his financial expertise.

What contingency of power is this person trying to increase?

A. Countervailing power

B. Substitutability

C. Centrality

D. Discretion

E. Visibility

483. ________ is called a ________ influence tactic.

A. Persuasion; hard

B. Coalition formation; soft

C. Information control; soft

D. Silent authority; soft

E. Exchange; soft

 

 
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