BUSI 342 exam 1 Liberty University complete answers

BUSI 342 exam 1 Liberty University complete answers

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Question 1 Even if an organization does not have a history in which people have shared experiences for years, the organizational culture will stabilize.

Question 2 The Organization for Economic Cooperation has recommended that global multinational firms establish and implement stricter ethical standards to aid business development.

Question 3 Firms using tweets on competitive service details lead to problems associated with using social media.

Question 4 It is not necessary for human resource professionals at all levels to possess strategic knowledge and impact

Question 5 Unit labor cost is computed by dividing the total cost of workers by their total levels of output

Question 6 The operational role of human resource involves focusing on clerical administration and recordkeeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation.

Question 7 A core competency is a unique capability that creates high value in which an organization excels

Question 8 Some of the major ways of increasing employee productivity are organizational restructuring, redesigning work, aligning human resource activities, and outsourcing analyses

Question 9 A useful way to measure the productivity of a workforce is to determine the total cost of people against the annual sales of the organization.

Question 10 The strategic role of human resource involves helping to define the strategy relative to human capital and its contribution to organizational results.

Question 11 The formula for calculating human capital value added = Revenue - (Operating Expense - (Compensation + Benefit Costs)) / Full-Time Head Count

Question 12 Under the federal Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 18 months for themselves, and up to 36 months for their dependents, if they pay the premium themselves

Question 13 The external environment of planning includes the quality and quantity of talent, the organizational culture, and the talent pipeline and leadership bench strength.

Question 14 Instead of making a choice, a good strategy will try to accommodate many different demands and interests

Question 15 The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) requires employers to disclose the ages of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations, and waiver of rights to sue for age discrimination must meet certain requirements.

Question 16 The SWOT analysis helps managers in formulating a strategic plan that considers the organization’s ability to deal with the situation at hand

Question 17 Benchmarking is the process of comparing business processes and outcomes to an industry standard or best practice

Question 18 The balanced scorecard is a framework organizations use to report on a diverse set of performance measures.

Question 19 After a deal for a merger is closed, the focus of HR activity should be on due diligence.

Question 20 The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN) requires private or commercial organizations that employ 100 or more full-time-workers who have worked more than six months in the previous year to give a 60-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 50 people

Question 21 The Immigration Reform and Control Act (IRCA) requires employers to verify the employment status of all employees, while not discriminating because of national origin or ethnic background.

Question 22 The primary objective of affirmative action plans is to identify the scope of workplace discrimination in the future

Question 23 Nepotism is the practice of preventing relatives from working for the same employer

Question 24 The Pregnancy Discrimination Act (PDA) requires that employers treat maternity leave the same as other personal or medical leaves

Question 25 The Americans with Disabilities Act includes restrictions on obtaining and retaining medically related information on applicants and employees.

Question 26 Congress passed the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) in 2009 to limit the use of genetic information by health insurance plans and to prohibit employment discrimination on the basis of this information.

Question 27 The Equal Pay Act of 1963 requires employers to pay similar wage rates for similar work without regard to gender

Question 28 The Rehabilitation Act was initially only applicable to federal contractors

Question 29 The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) covers all state government employees

Question 30 Restricting employees from wearing garments that might get caught in machinery is a form of discrimination and not a business necessity

Question 31 The Bureau of Labor Statistics classifies people working between 35 and 40 hours per week as part-time workers.

Question 32 Reviewing existing job documentation is typically the last step in the job analysis process

Question 33 Competencies are individual capabilities that can be linked to performance by individuals or teams

Question 34 Job rotation is the process of shifting a person from job to job

Question 35 Job enlargement is increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning, organizing, controlling, or evaluating the job

Question 36 Job design refers to organizing tasks, duties, responsibilities, and other elements into a productive unit of work

Question 37 A special-purpose team is composed of individuals who are assigned a cluster of tasks, duties, and responsibilities to be accomplished

Question 38 The work sampling method of job analysis allows a job analyst to determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical sampling of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all actions

Question 39 Work is effort directed toward accomplishing results

Question 40 Contingent workers are full time employees.

 

A third-country national is a citizen of one country who is working in a second country and employed by an organization headquartered in the first country

The Organization for Economic Cooperation has recommended that global multinational firms establish and implement stricter ethical standards to aid business development

Firms using tweets on competitive service details lead to problems associated with using social media

Human resource management is the design of formal systems in an organization to manage human talent for accomplishing organizational goals

The administrative role of human resource involves serving as employee “champion” for employee issues and concerns

Human resources operations in some companies have been involved with mergers, acquisitions, and outsourcing

A person who has in-depth knowledge and expertise in a limited area of human resource is known as a human resource generalist

Professional in Human Resources (PHR) is sponsored by the WorldatWork Association

A host-country national is a citizen of one country who is working in a second country and employed by an organization which is headquartered in a third country

Global Professional in Human Resource (GPHR), a human resource certification, is sponsored by the American Society for Training and Development

“Percentage of employees with career plan” is an example of the development HR metric

Revenue per employee is a basic measure of human capital effectiveness

Short-range forecasts focus on the immediate HR needs of an organization

The formula for calculating human capital value added = Revenue - (Operating Expense - (Compensation + Benefit Costs)) / Full-Time Head Count

People-related costs are typically the smallest controllable expense in organizations

A multinational corporation, sometimes called a transnational corporation, is an organization that has facilities and other assets in at least one country other than its home country

The policy of filling key positions with individuals in the region of the subsidiary in offshore organizations is known as the polycentric policy of global staffing strategies

The policy of assigning host-country nationals to key staff positions in offshore organizations is known as the ethnocentric policy of global staffing strategies

Benchmarking is the process of comparing business processes and outcomes to an industry standard or best practice

The strategic planning process begins with an assessment of the current state of the business and the environmental forces that may be important during the planning cycle

Differences in pay between men and women in the same jobs are permitted when there is a difference in the quality of work

Title VII of the Civil Rights Act states that it is illegal for an employer to fail or refuse to hire or discharge any individual because of such individual’s national origin

Provisions of the Affordable Care Act (2010) allow for break time and a private place for
nursing mothers to express breast milk for one year after the birth of a child

The Americans with Disabilities Act includes restrictions on obtaining and retaining medically related information on applicants and employees

Through cultural awareness training, organizations try to build greater understanding of the differences among people

Nepotism is the practice of preventing relatives from working for the same employer

A hostile environment harassment is a type of sexual harassment in which employment outcomes are typically linked to the individual granting sexual favors

Executive Orders 11246, 11375, and 11478 require federal contractors to take affirmative action to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals

The Immigration Reform and Control Act (IRCA) requires employers to verify the employment status of all employees, while not discriminating because of national origin or ethnic background

A quid pro quo harassment exists when an individual’s work performance or psychological well-being is unreasonably affected by intimidating or offensive working conditions

The managerial job analysis questionnaire is a specialized instrument that incorporates checklists, where each job is analyzed on 27 dimensions composed of 187 “elements.”

Job rotation is the process of shifting a person from job to job

A special-purpose team is composed of individuals who are assigned a cluster of tasks, duties, and responsibilities to be accomplished

Telework means that employees work via electronic, telecommunications, and Internet means

A job description identifies the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job

Job design refers to organizing tasks, duties, responsibilities, and other elements into a productive unit of work

Responsibilities are obligations to perform certain tasks and duties

Comprised of more than 200 statements, the position analysis questionnaire examines a variety of managerial dimensions, including decision making and supervising

Reviewing existing job documentation is typically the last step in the job analysis process

Workflow analysis usually begins with the evaluation of activities that lead to the output

 

Question 1 Which of the following is true about a Human Resource Information System?

Question 2 _____, a method of increasing employee productivity, involves having fewer employees who perform multiple job tasks.

Question 3 Senior Professional in Human Resources (SPHR), a human resource certification, is sponsored by the Human Resource Certification Institute.

Question 4 In the context of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the biggest concerns are linked to _____.

Question 5 Which of the following is an advantage of hiring Millennials?

Question 6 Unit labor cost is computed by dividing the total cost of workers by their total levels of output.

Question 7 Global staffing has created political issues such as questioning U.S. federal legislation that restricts the number of high-skilled workers admitted from other countries.

Question 8 HR leaders are looking into making overseas assignments shorter in length and relying on technology to help build overseas business relationships.

Question 9 For human resource specialists, the largest organization is the Society for Human Resource Management.

Question 10 Josh, a human resource executive, works with AmPro Inc. Recently, he moved from a generalized role in the HR department to a senior role. Which of the following skills does Josh have to build to succeed in his new role?

Question 11 The balanced scorecard is a framework organizations use to report on a diverse set of performance measures.

Question 12 The value for HR practices cannot be measured.

Question 13 People-related costs are typically the smallest controllable expense in organizations.

Question 14 The focus of HR planning is to ensure that the organization has the right number of Human Resources, with the right capabilities, at the right times, and in the right places.

Question 15 The formula for calculating the potential ROI for a new HR activity = operating cost for a new or enhanced system for a time period + one-time cost of acquisition and implementation/value of gains from productivity improvements for the time period.

Question 16 Which of the following is typically the last step in the strategic planning process for organizations?

Question 17 Big Cats is planning to acquire the Top Dogs company. Before the acquisition, which of the following should the HR manager perform?

Question 18 Which of the following is true of the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act?

Question 19 The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) requires employers to disclose the ages of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations, and waiver of rights to sue for age discrimination must meet certain requirements.

Question 20 Jack, a human resource manager, is starting the HR planning process. Which of the following should be his first step?

Question 21 Which of the following is true of the term "glass ceiling"?

Question 22 Equal employment opportunity is a broad-reaching concept that essentially requires employers to make _____.

Question 23 Provisions of the Equal Pay Act (2010) allow for break time and a private place for nursing mothers to express breast milk for one year after the birth of a child.

Question 24 The _____ eliminates the statute of limitations for employees who file pay discrimination claims under the Equal Pay Act.

Question 25 Which of the following scenarios is considered illegal according to the Civil Rights Act of 1964?

Question 26 The _____ requires that qualified individuals be given up to 12 weeks of unpaid family leave and also requires that those taking family leave be allowed to return to jobs.

Question 27 In June, Alexa's Army Reserve unit was called to active duty. To comply with the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act, her employer must _____.

Question 28 Restricting employees from wearing garments that might get caught in machinery is a form of discrimination and not a business necessity.

Question 29 Pay equity is the idea that pay for jobs requiring comparable levels of knowledge, skill, and ability should be similar, even if actual duties differ significantly.

Question 30 The affirmative action program is reviewed by the _____.

Question 31 Job code and pay grade are components of job description noted under _____.

Question 32 By 2020, which of the following groups will have the highest labor force participation rate?

Question 33 Workflow analysis that focuses on making an organization more effective and efficient can be used only in manufacturing organizations.

Question 34 Which of the following is typically performed first when conducting job analysis?

Question 35 Which of the following specialized instruments incorporates checklists?

Question 36 The work sampling method of job analysis allows a job analyst to determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical sampling of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all actions.

Question 37 Job enlargement is increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning, organizing, controlling, or evaluating the job.

Question 38 The _____ method allows a job analyst to determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical observation and recording of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all actions.

Question 39 _____ is increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning, organizing, controlling, or evaluating the job.

Question 40 Workflow analysis usually begins with the evaluation of activities that lead to the output.

 

Contingent workers have less legal protection regarding selection, discrimination, benefits, discipline and termination than do regular employees

International firms that move manufacturing operations to low-wage countries overseas are sometimes criticized for being “sweatshop employers.” Which of the following is NOT a defense for an international firm that is taking advantage of the wage disparity between the U.S. and less-developed countries?

Which of the following would NOT be identified as a typical HR operational activity

The explicit aspects of organizational culture include all of the following EXCEPT

When HR professionals from different organizations work together to solve shared business problems they are engaging in

A manufacturer of heavy construction equipment is replacing a number of its assembly line employees with a robotic assembly process. This would be termed organizational restructuring

Woodmere Production Company employees over 2,000 hourly workers. The HR department is debating the introduction of web-based technology to handle employment applications, employee benefit enrollments and other related functions. The move to this technology will most affect the HR department’s ____ role

Most HR outsourcing is related to the administrative role of HR

Pauline is an employee of a large city. She is the lead negotiator for contracts between the city government and the police and firefighters’ unions. Pauline is an HR

A major issue in the modern workplace is that interesting and challenging assembly line jobs have been deskilled into monotonous and repetitive jobs

Despite the increase in global trade, most U.S.-based organizations experience little impact from global competitors or foreign business practices

Employees who value _________ are most likely to be attracted to jobs allowing them to telecommute

Revenue divided by full time employee equivalents is

If an HR manager wishes to determine how much operating profit per employee the firm generates, he/she should calculate Human Capital Value Added (HCVA)

FreeFormPress has experienced a significant increase in the number of magazines it publishes. But, FreeForm is concerned that several of its existing clients may leave at the end of their current contracts. Rather than hiring additional permanent employees to handle the new clients, all of the following options would be a potential solution for the talent shortage EXCEPT

A polycentric approach to international staffing reduces mistakes due to lack of understanding of the host-country’s culture

The new CEO of the firm has told the vice president of HR that all HR activities must use the cost of capital as the benchmark against which their returns from the activities are measured. The new CEO is implementing

Which of the following statements about religious expression in the workplace is TRUE?

All of the following types of organizations fall under Title VII EXCEPT

In order to ward off a complaint of discrimination, every requirement for employment must be

Which of the following is FALSE about workplace romances?

The fundamental job duties of the employment position that an individual with a disability holds or desires are called

If an employee refuses to work with a person afflicted with a life-threatening disease, such as AIDS, that employee could be subject to disciplinary action, up to and including dismissal.
If an employee refuses to work with a person afflicted with a life-threatening disease, such as AIDS, that employee could be the subject of employer investigation and appropriate action

The Immigration Reform and Control Act

A prestigious U.S. university wishes to hire a noted foreign scientist to teach and research in its environmental sciences program. This scientist has unique qualifications and will not displace any U.S. scientist. What must the university do to hire this individual

Clara, an accounts receivable clerk at a large insurance agency, has just converted to a religion which requires women to wear modest clothing (high-necked, long-sleeved tops, ankle-length skirts, closed-toed shoes, and a small bonnet that covers her hair). Clara’s employer must provide reasonable accommodation and allow Clara to wear her garb, even though some of her coworkers are annoyed at Clara’s “ostentatious modesty.”

Which of the following statements in a job description is MOST appropriate?

Members of a virtual teams may have never met in person.

A work flow analysis BEGINS with

Archie is developing performance standards for the job of pediatric nurse practitioner for a pediatrics medical practice. Archie should base these standards directly on

Chuck’s office has moved to a ____ arrangement where Monday through Thursday the employees work from 7 a.m. until 6 p.m. with an hour off for lunch, and everyone takes Friday off.

All of the following are typical advantages of diverse work teams EXCEPT

A major problem for organizations who employ large numbers of Hispanic employees is that there is almost no extensive job description database in Spanish.

Which of the following statements is true?

The competency-based approach to job analysis focuses entirely on behavioral competencies such as customer focus and leadership.

 

 

         

 

       1.    Human resources operations in some companies have been involved with mergers, acquisitions, and outsourcing.

       2.    Human resource management is the design of formal systems in an organization to manage human talent for accomplishing organizational goals.

       3.    Specialized research capabilities, patents, information systems, designs, operating processes, and copyrights are classified as intellectual capital.

       4.    Intellectual property is the collective value of the capabilities, knowledge, skills, life experiences, and motivation of an organizational workforce.

       5.    A core competency is a unique capability that creates high value in which an organization excels.

       6.    A useful way to measure the productivity of a workforce is to determine the total cost of people against the annual sales of the organization.

       7.    Unit labor cost is computed by dividing the total cost of workers by their total levels of output.

       8.    Some of the major ways of increasing employee productivity are organizational restructuring, redesigning work, aligning human resource activities, and outsourcing analyses.

       9.    Organizational culture consists of the shared values and beliefs that give members of an organization meaning and provide them with rules for behavior.

    10.    Even if an organization does not have a history in which people have shared experiences for years, the organizational culture will stabilize.

    11.    The operational role of human resource involves focusing on clerical administration and recordkeeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation.

    12.    The administrative role of human resource involves serving as employee “champion” for employee issues and concerns.

    13.    The strategic role of human resource involves helping to define the strategy relative to human capital and its contribution to organizational results.

    14.    An expatriate is a citizen of one country who is working in a second country and employed by an organization headquartered in the first country.

    15.    A host-country national is a citizen of one country who is working in a second country and employed by an organization which is headquartered in a third country.

    16.    A third-country national is a citizen of one country who is working in a second country and employed by an organization headquartered in the first country.

    17.    Replacing the experience and talents of longer-service workers is a challenge facing employers in all industries.

    18.    Contingent workers include temporary workers, independent contractors, leased employees, and part-timers.

    19.    By using contingent workers, employers risk facing more legal issues regarding selection, discrimination, benefits, discipline, and termination.

    20.    Firms using tweets on competitive service details lead to problems associated with using social media.

    21.    The Organization for Economic Cooperation has recommended that global multinational firms establish and implement stricter ethical standards to aid business development.

    22.    The Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires companies to establish ethics codes, develop employee complaint systems, and have antiretaliation policies for employees who act as whistle blowers to identify wrongful actions.

    23.    It is not necessary for human resource professionals at all levels to possess strategic knowledge and impact.

    24.    A person who has in-depth knowledge and expertise in a limited area of human resource is known as a human resource generalist.

 

    25.    A person with the responsibility of performing a variety of human resource activities is known as a human resource specialist.

    26.    For human resource specialists, the largest organization is the Society for Human Resource Management.

    27.    Professional in Human Resources (PHR) is sponsored by the WorldatWork Association.

    28.    Senior Professional in Human Resources (SPHR), a human resource certification, is sponsored by the Human Resource Certification Institute.

    29.    Global Professional in Human Resource (GPHR), a human resource certification, is sponsored by the American Society for Training and Development.

    30.    Certified Compensation Professional (CCP), a human resource certification, is sponsored by the WorlatWork Association.

     1.   Which of the following is typically the first step in the strategic planning process for organizations?

a.
Organizational mission
b.
SWOT analysis
c.
Formulating organizational strategy
d.
Establishing goals and objectives
 

     2.   Which of the following is typically the last step in the strategic planning process for organizations?

a.
Formulating supporting functional strategies
b.
Evaluating and reassessing strategy
c.
Establishing goals and objectives
d.
Stating the organizational mission
 

     3.   Ken, a brand manager at Media Labs LLC., is formulating a strategic plan for his organization. He has identified the organizational mission and formulated a SWOT analysis of the business. Which of the following is most likely to be Ken’s next step in the strategic planning process?

a.
Evaluate and reassess strategy
b.
Implement strategy
c.
Establish goals and objectives
d.
Formulate supporting functional strategies
 

     4.   Kurt, a manager at LionShare LLC., is responsible for the strategic planning process in his organization. He is currently at the stage of implementing the strategy. Which of the following stages of strategic planning would have Kurt engaged in just before he moved on to implementation?

a.
Stating the organizational mission
b.
Conducting a SWOT analysis
c.
Establishing goals and objectives
d.
Formulating supporting functional strategies
 

     5.   Which of the following best defines multinational corporations?

a.
An organization that has facilities and other assets in at least one country other than its home country
b.
An organization that imports goods from other countries to its home country
c.
An organization that exports goods from its home country to other countries
d.
An organization that has facilities and other assets only in its home country
 

     6.   Which of the following is best classified as an ethnocentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?

a.
Managers from headquarters staff key positions.
b.
Host-country nationals staff key positions.
c.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality.
d.
Key positions are filled by individuals in the region of the subsidiary.
 

     7.   Which of the following is best classified as a polycentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?

a.
Managers from headquarters staff key positions.
b.
Host-country nationals staff key positions.
c.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality.
d.
Key positions are filled by individuals in the region of the subsidiary.
 

     8.   Which of the following is best classified as a geocentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?

a.
Managers from headquarters staff key positions.
b.
Host-country nationals staff key positions.
c.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality.
d.
Key positions are filled by individuals in the region of the subsidiary.
 

     9.   Which of the following is best classified as a regiocentric policy of strategic approaches to international staffing?

a.
Managers from headquarters staff key positions.
b.
Host-country nationals staff key positions.
c.
An international cadre of skilled managers are assigned to global subsidiaries regardless of nationality.
d.
Key positions are filled by individuals from the same geographic area as the subsidiary.
 

   10.   Which of the following is typically the first step in the HR planning process?

a.
Review organization’s environmental analysis/strategic plans
b.
Develop HR staffing plans and actions
c.
Compile HR planning forecasts
d.
Assess external and internal workforce
 

   11.   Which of the following is typically the last step in the HR planning process?

a.
Review organization’s environmental analysis/strategic plans
b.
Develop HR staffing plans and actions
c.
Compile HR planning forecasts
d.
Assess external and internal workforce
 

   12.   Mark, an HR manager, is responsible for the HR planning process in his organization. He has reviewed the organization’s strategic plans. Which of the following is most likely to be Mark’s next step in the planning process?

a.
Develop HR staffing plans and actions
b.
Compile HR planning forecasts
c.
Implement HR staffing plans and actions
d.
Assess external and internal workforce
 

   13.   Which of the following is a factor of the external environment in an organization?

a.
Leadership bench strength
b.
Organizational culture
c.
Quality of talent
d.
Competitive forces
 

   14.   Which of the following is a factor of the internal environment in an organization?

a.
Quality of talent
b.
Economic forces
c.
Political forces
d.
Competitive forces
 

   15.   The term _____ refers to the process of identifying a plan for the orderly replacement of key employees.

a.
attrition
b.
succession planning
c.
due diligence
d.
benchmarking
 

   16.   Which of the following is a judgmental method of HR forecasting?

a.
Simulation models
b.
Estimates
c.
Staffing ratios
d.
Productivity ratios
 

   17.   Which of the following is a mathematical method of HR forecasting?

a.
The rule of thumb
b.
Estimates
c.
Staffing ratios
d.
Nominal groups
 

   18.   _____ is a mathematical HR forecasting method that involves making a comparison of past relationships among various factors.

a.
Statistical regression analysis
b.
Productivity ratio
c.
Staffing ratio
d.
Delphi technique
 

   19.   _____ refers to the judgmental method of HR forecasting that relies on general guidelines applied to a specific situation within the organization.

a.
Statistical regression analysis
b.
Rule of thumb
c.
Delphi technique
d.
Simulation model
 

   20.   A(n) _____ refers to the judgmental method of HR forecasting that requires experts to meet face to face.

a.
simulation model
b.
estimate
c.
nominal group
d.
regression analysis
 

   21.   Internal Supply for next year = _____.

a.
Current staffing level + Projected outflows this year + Projected inflows this year
b.
Current staffing level - Projected outflows this year - Projected inflows this year
c.
Current staffing level + Projected outflows this year - Projected inflows this year
d.
Current staffing level - Projected outflows this year + Projected inflows this year
   22.   Which of the following is a source of inflow in the current staffing level?

a.
Internal transfers
b.
Turnover
c.
Demotions
d.
Retirements
 

   23.   Which of the following is a source of outflow in the current staffing level?

a.
External hires
b.
Promotions
c.
Recalls
d.
Internal transfers
 

   24.   Which of the following is an effective method of managing a talent surplus?

a.
Outsourcing to a third party
b.
Using contingent workers
c.
Freezing hiring
d.
Increase employee work hours through overtime
 

   25.   Which of the following is an effective method for managing a talent shortage?

a.
Reducing employee work hours
b.
Encouraging attrition
c.
Implementing voluntary separation programs
d.
Outsourcing to a third party
 

   26.   Which of the following is true of the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act?

a.
Displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 18 months for themselves, and up to 36 months for their dependents, if they pay the premiums themselves.
b.
Displaced workers can use the Medicare program sponsored by the government for up to 18 months after the termination of their employment.
c.
Displaced workers can use the Medicare program sponsored by the federal government for up to 36 months after the termination of their employment.
d.
Displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 12 months for themselves, and up to 24 months for their dependents, if they pay the premiums themselves.
 

   27.   Which of the following is true of the Older Workers Benefit Protection Act?

a.
The act requires employers to disclose the ethnicity and gender of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations.
b.
The act requires employers to disclose the ages of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations.
c.
The act requires employers to disclose ages of only the terminated employees in layoff situations.
d.
The act requires employers to disclose ages of only the retained employees in layoff situations.
 

   28.   Which of the following is true of the Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act?

a.
It requires private or commercial organizations that employ 20 or more full-time workers who have worked more than a year with the organization to give a 30-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 10 people.
b.
It requires private and commercial organizations that employ 50 or more full-time employees who have worked more than three months in the previous year to give a 45-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 30 people.
c.
It requires private or commercial organizations that employ 100 or more full-time workers who have worked more than six months in the previous year to give a 60-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 50 people.
d.
It requires private or commercial organizations that employ more than 50 or more full-time workers who have worked more than a year with the organization to give a 30-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 20 people.
   29.   Which of the following is a consequence that employers face when they violate the WARN Act?

a.
Delisting from the stock exchange
b.
Revocation of trade licenses
c.
Imposition of trade embargo
d.
Incurring heavy fines
 

   30.   Which of the following is an HR activity that should be performed before engaging in mergers and acquisitions?

a.
Conducting due diligence
b.
Retaining key talent
c.
Optimizing workforce
d.
Recognizing cultural differences
 

   31.   Which of the following is an HR activity that should be conducted during integration in mergers and acquisitions?

a.
Assessing risks
b.
Retaining key talent
c.
Identifying possible conflicts
d.
Conducting due diligence
   32.   Which of the following is an HR activity to be performed post integration in mergers and acquisitions?

a.
Assessing risks
b.
Retaining key talent
c.
Identifying and establishing new culture
d.
Conducting due diligence
 

   33.   During mergers and acquisitions, risk must be assessed _____.

a.
post integration
b.
after making the deal
c.
before making the deal
d.
during integration
 

   34.   During mergers and acquisitions, the workforce must be optimized _____.

a.
post integration
b.
pre integration
c.
before making the deal
d.
during integration
   35.   Which of the following best defines the term ‘effectiveness’?

a.
The degree to which operations are done in an economical manner
b.
The ability to produce a specific desired effort or result that can be measured
c.
The degree to which operations are done in the least possible time
d.
The ability to produce a specific desired effort or result that cannot be measured
   36.   HR-to-employee ratio is classified as a(n) _____ metric of Human Resource.

a.
training
b.
development
c.
HR staff and expenses
d.
compensation
 

   37.   Cost per hire is classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource.

a.
development
b.
training
c.
compensation
d.
staffing
 

   38.   Annual wages and pay increases are classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource.

a.
compensation
b.
training
c.
development
d.
staffing
 

   39.   Average tenure of employees is classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource.

a.
compensation
b.
training
c.
retention and quality
d.
development
 

   40.   Positions filled internally are classified as a _____ metric of Human Resource.

a.
compensation
b.
training
c.
retention and quality
d.
development
 

   41.   Which of the following best defines HR analytics?

a.
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
b.
An assumption-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of quantitative tools and models
c.
An evidence-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of qualitative tools and models
d.
An assumption-based approach to making HR decisions on the basis of qualitative tools and models
 

   42.   In the balanced scorecard framework, operational effectiveness is classified under _____.

a.
financial measures
b.
internal business processes
c.
customer relations
d.
learning and growth activities
 

   43.   In the balanced scorecard framework, which of the following factors would considered most important to ensure that the organization is meeting customer expectations?

a.
profit and loss
b.
institutional knowledge
c.
customer satisfaction
d.
utilization of capital
 

   44.   In the balanced scorecard framework, employee capabilities are classified under _____.

a.
financial measures
b.
internal business processes
c.
customer relations
d.
learning and growth activities
 

   45.   In the balanced scorecard framework, utilization of capital is classified under _____.

a.
financial measures
b.
internal business processes
c.
customer relations
d.
learning and growth activities
 

   46.   Which of the following is the function of compliance audits?

a.
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
b.
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
c.
Reviewing specific HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
d.
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
 

   47.   Which of the following is the function of benefit programs audit?

a.
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
b.
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
c.
Reviewing specific HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
d.
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
 

   48.   Which of the following is the function of I-9 audit?

a.
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
b.
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
c.
Reviewing specific HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
d.
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations
 

   49.   Which of the following is the function of specific program audit?

a.
Reviewing regulatory compliance, benefits administration and reporting
b.
Checking record keeping on state and federal paperwork requirement
c.
Reviewing particular HR areas such as compensation, training, and so on
d.
Reviewing compliance with immigration regulations and the I-9 form requirement
 

     1.   The strategic planning process begins with an assessment of the current state of the business and the environmental forces that may be important during the planning cycle.

     2.   The SWOT analysis helps managers in formulating a strategic plan that considers the organization’s ability to deal with the situation at hand.

     3.   Implementing the strategy is typically the last step in the strategic planning process.

     4.   Instead of making a choice, a good strategy will try to accommodate many different demands and interests.

     5.   Good strategies involve an accurate diagnosis of the challenge, an approach to overcome the obstacles, and a focus on coherent actions to make the approach work.

     6.   Organizational strategy is independent of Human Resource management.

     7.   A multinational corporation, sometimes called a transnational corporation, is an organization that has facilities and other assets in at least one country other than its home country.

     8.   The policy of assigning host-country nationals to key staff positions in offshore organizations is known as the ethnocentric policy of global staffing strategies.

     9.   Assigning an international cadre of skilled managers to global subsidiaries regardless of their nationality is known as the polycentric policy of global staffing strategies.

   10.   The policy of filling key positions with individuals in the region of the subsidiary in offshore organizations is known as the polycentric policy of global staffing strategies.

   11.   The focus of HR planning is to ensure that the organization has the right number of Human Resources, with the right capabilities, at the right times, and in the right places.

   12.   In the final part of the planning process, HR plans are developed to provide specific direction for the management of HR activities related to employee recruiting, selection, and retention.

   13.   The internal environment of planning includes economic, political, and competitive forces that will shape the future.

   14.   The external environment of planning includes the quality and quantity of talent, the organizational culture, and the talent pipeline and leadership bench strength.

   15.   Short-range forecasts focus on the immediate HR needs of an organization.

   16.   Intermediate-range plans usually project one to three years into the future.

   17.   Under the federal Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA), displaced workers can retain their group medical coverage for up to 18 months for themselves, and up to 36 months for their dependents, if they pay the premium themselves.

   18.   The Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) requires employers to disclose the ages of both terminated and retained employees in layoff situations, and waiver of rights to sue for age discrimination must meet certain requirements.

   19.   The Worker Adjustment and Retraining Notification Act (WARN) requires private or commercial organizations that employ 100 or more full-time-workers who have worked more than six months in the previous year to give a 60-day notice before implementing a layoff or facility closing that involves more than 50 people.

   20.   After a deal for a merger is closed, the focus of HR activity should be on due diligence.

   21.   The value for HR practices cannot be measured.

   22.   People-related costs are typically the smallest controllable expense in organizations.

   23.   “Percentage of employees with career plan” is an example of the development HR metric.

   24.   Benchmarking is the process of comparing business processes and outcomes to an industry standard or best practice.

   25.   The balanced scorecard is a framework organizations use to report on a diverse set of performance measures.

   26.   Revenue per employee is a basic measure of human capital effectiveness.

   27.   The formula for calculating the potential ROI for a new HR activity = operating cost for a new or enhanced system for a time period + one-time cost of acquisition and implementation/value of gains from productivity improvements for the time period.

   28.   The formula for calculating human capital value added = Revenue - (Operating Expense - (Compensation + Benefit Costs)) / Full-Time Head Count

   29.   The formula for calculating human capital return on investment = Revenue +(Operating Expense +(Compensation - Benefits Cost)) / (Compensation - Benefit Cost)

   30.   Human economic value added = Net profit before taxes + Cost of capital / Full-time head count

 

     1.   Which of the following is a legally permissible criterion in making hiring and other employment decisions?

a.
Education
b.
Gender
c.
Age
d.
Religion
 

     2.   Which of the following is an illegal criterion for rejecting job applicants?

a.
Education
b.
Work experience
c.
Skill sets
d.
Religion
 

     3.   Which of the following advertisements for recruitment is most likely to be considered illegal?

a.
“Experienced writers required”
b.
“Enthusiastic radio jockeys needed”
c.
“Wanted: Professors with educational background in economics”
d.
“Young store executives needed”
 

     4.   Equal employment opportunity is a broad-reaching concept that essentially requires employers to make:

a.
status-blind employment decisions.
b.
nepotistic employment decisions.
c.
egocentric employment decisions.
d.
dictatorial employment decisions.
 

     5.   Affirmative action means that an employer takes proactive measures to:

a.
encourage the glass ceiling effect.
b.
reduce status-blind employment decisions.
c.
increase the number of women and minorities in the workforce.
d.
decrease instances of whistleblowing in the workplace.
 

     6.   Which of the following is true of the U.S. Department of Labor?

a.
The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission is a part of the Department of Labor.
b.
It can enforce employment laws for employers in public workplaces but private workplaces are beyond its jurisdiction.
c.
The employment requirements set out by Executive Orders for federal contractors and subcontractors is beyond the scope of the Department of Labor.
d.
It has broad enforcement power and oversees compliance with many employment-related laws.
 

     7.   _____ occurs when members of a group are treated differently from others.

a.
Disparate treatment
b.
Consociationalism
c.
Isonomy
d.
Diversity
 

     8.   _____ occurs when an employment practice that does not appear to be discriminatory has a disproportionately adverse effect on individuals with a particular characteristic.

a.
Disparate treatment
b.
Disparate impact
c.
Isonomy
d.
Consociationalism
 

     9.   A _____ is a practice required for safe and efficient organizational operations.

a.
disparate treatment
b.
burden of proof
c.
business necessity
d.
business emergency
 

   10.   Preventing workers from injuring themselves at the workplace is a _____.

a.
nonretaliatory practice
b.
burden of proof
c.
business necessity
d.
business emergency
 

   11.   Which of the following is a criticism of the use of criminal background checks and credit reports in the selection process?

a.
It often results in a disparate impact of minority applicants.
b.
It leads to an increase in the number of status-blind employment decisions.
c.
It is merely an indicator of the past and not a predictor of the future.
d.
It reduces instances of glass ceiling.
 

   12.   Which of the following best describes a bona fide occupational qualification?

a.
It is a template that an HR department uses in selecting, training, and orienting prospective employees.
b.
It provides a detailed description of routine work responsibilities for all the employees in an organization.
c.
It provides an exhaustive list of the desired traits and characteristics expected from prospective employees.
d.
It provides a legitimate reason why an employer can exclude persons on otherwise

illegal bases of consideration.
 

   13.   Which of the following is true of retaliation in workplaces?

a.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against individuals who file

discrimination charges.
b.
Employees are prohibited from retaliating against organizations that practice discrimination.
c.
Employers are prohibited from retaliating against employees on ethical grounds.
d.
Employees are restricted from retaliating against employers who encourage instances of glass ceiling.
 

   14.   Which of the following scenarios is considered illegal according to the Civil Rights Act of 1964? 

a.
Segregating employees on the basis of their educational qualification
b.
Segregating employees on the basis of their ethnicity
c.
Segregating employees on the basis of their work experience
d.
Segregating employees on the basis of their skill sets
 

   15.   Which of the following scenarios is considered illegal according to the Civil Rights Act of 1964? 

a.
Segregating employees on the basis of their educational qualification
b.
Segregating employees on the basis of their gender
c.
Segregating employees on the basis of their work experience
d.
Segregating employees on the basis of their skill sets
 

   16.   Which of the following organizations must comply with rules and regulations that specific

government agencies have established to administer the Equal Employment Opportunity

Act of 1972?

a.
Nongovernmental organizations with a minimum of 10 employees
b.
State and local governments with more than 15 employees
c.
Private organizations with a minimum of 10 employees
d.
Labor unions with 5 or more members
 

   17.   Which of the following is true of the Civil Rights Act of 1991?

a.
It requires that employers show that there are instances of glass ceiling in their organizations.
b.
It requires employers to discourage the occurence of affirmative actions in the work place.
c.
It requires that employers show that an employment practice is job related for a position.
d.
It requires employers to avoid making status-blind employment decisions.
 

   18.   Which of the following is true of executive orders 11246, 11375, and 11478?

a.
They require all educational institutions to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
b.
They require labor unions to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
c.
They require state governments to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
d.
They require federal contractors to take affirmative actions to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.
 

   19.   Which of the following is the objective of the affirmative action program?

a.
To have the company’s workforce demographics reflect as closely as possible the demographics in the labor market
b.
To encourage organizations where minorities from the local community represent a significantly lesser proportion of the workforce
c.
To stop companies from making status-blind employment decisions
d.
To encourage organizations where instances of glass ceiling are common
 

   20.   The affirmative action program is reviewed by the _____.

a.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
b.
Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
c.
Committee on Oversight and Government Reform
d.
Department of Justice
 

   21.   The original purpose of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 was to address _____ in the United States.

a.
gender discrimination
b.
age discrimination
c.
racial discrimination
d.
disability discrimination
 

   22.   The _____ requires that employers treat maternity leave the same as other personal or medical leaves.

a.
Pregnancy Discrimination Act
b.
Family and Medical Leave Act
c.
Fair Labor Standards Act
d.
National Labor Relations Act
 

   23.   Which of the following is true of the Family and Medical Leave Act?

a.
It does not cover cases of adoption.
b.
It  applies only to women.
c.
It requires that qualified individuals be given up to 12 weeks of unpaid family leave.
d.
It requires that qualified individuals be given up to 20 weeks of unpaid family leave.
 

   24.   The _____ requires that qualified individuals be given up to 12 weeks of unpaid family

leave and also requires that those taking family leave be allowed to return to jobs.

a.
Pregnancy Discrimination Act
b.
Family and Medical Leave Act
c.
Fair Labor Standards Act
d.
National Labor Relations Act
 

   25.   Which of the following statements is true about the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

a.
It states that differences in pay between men and women in the same jobs are permitted if they belong to different ethnic groups.
b.
It requires that men and women in the same jobs, inspite of difference in seniority are given equal pay.
c.
It states that the existence of pay differences between the different jobs held by women and men issufficient to prove that illegal discrimination has occurred.
d.
It requires employers to give similar wage rates for similar work without regard to gender.
 

   26.   Under which of the following circumstances is a difference in pay between men and women permitted by the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

a.
Difference in performance
b.
Difference in life stage
c.
Difference in ethnicity
d.
Difference in religious beliefs
 

   27.   Under which of the following circumstances is a difference in pay between men and women permitted by the Equal Pay Act of 1963?

a.
Difference in seniority
b.
Difference in marital status
c.
Difference in ethnicity
d.
Difference in religious beliefs
 

   28.   The _____ eliminates the statute of limitations for employees who file pay discrimination claims under the Equal Pay Act.

a.
Taft-Hartley Act
b.
Lilly Ledbetter Fair Pay Act
c.
Clayton Antitrust Act
d.
Railway Labor Act
 

   29.   Which of the following is a major reason for the development of the pay equity idea?

a.
The uneven representation of ethnic minorities in the workforce
b.
The increasing number of racial discrimination lawsuits
c.
The continuing gap between the earnings of women and men
d.
The increasing number of women in the workforce
 

   30.   Which of the following is a step that employers can take to reduce pay inequities?

a.
Benchmark against local and national markets
b.
Base pay on the longevity of the employee’s association with the company
c.
Exclude benefits and other items from the total pay package
d.
Base pay on the age of the employee
 

   31.   Which of the following is true of glass ceiling?

a.
It refers to the discriminatory practices that have prevented women and other minority status employees from successfully obtaining jobs.
b.
It refers to the preferential treatment that women and minorities receive within an organization.
c.
It refers to the preferential treatment that women and minorities receive within an organization when they advance to executive-level jobs.
d.
It refers to the discriminatory practices that have prevented women and other minority status employees from advancing to executive-level jobs.
 

   32.   One of the most common means used to control instances of glassceiling in an organization is:

a.
avoiding status-blind employment decisions.
b.
establishing formal mentoring programs for minority groups.
c.
avoiding affirmative action.
d.
preventing employees from opting for alternative work arrangements.
 

   33.   The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission and Federal Court cases have ruled that sex discrimination under title VII applies to a person’s gender at the time of _____.

a.
birth
b.
discrimination
c.
employment
d.
litigation
 

   34.   Which of the following best describes nepotism?

a.
It is the practice of prohibiting relatives from working for the same employer.
b.
It is the practice of allowing relatives to work for the same employer.
c.
It is the practice of allowing friends to work for the same employer.
d.
It is the practice of prohibiting friends from working for the same employer.
 

   35.   Which of the following best exemplifies quid pro quo type of sexual harassment?

a.
A supervisor commenting on the appearance of an employee
b.
A supervisor telling jokes to an employee that are sexual in nature
c.
A supervisor giving a pay hike to an employee who performed sexual favors
d.
A supervisor allowing revealing photos of self to be displayed in a public domain
 

   36.   Which of the following statements is true of quid pro quo harassment?

a.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment if he or she tells jokes that are suggestive or sexual in nature.
b.
For proving charges of quid pro quo harassment, a plaintiff only needs to prove that the working condition at a workplace is hostile.
c.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment only if the victim refuses to grant the sexual favors.
d.
A company always bears liability for quid pro quo harassment as supervisors are agents of the company.
 

   37.   Which of the following statements is true of quid pro quo harassment?

a.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment if he or she tells jokes that are suggestive or sexual in nature.
b.
For proving charges of quid pro quo harassment, a plaintiff only needs to prove that the working condition at a workplace is hostile.
c.
A supervisor can be held guilty of quid pro quo harassment if he or she promotes an employee in return of sexual favors.
d.
A company cannot be heald liable for an employee’s actions in cases of quid pro quo harassment.
   38.   The Rehabilitation Act passed in 1973 applied only to _____.

a.
federal contractors
b.
state governments
c.
labor unions
d.
nonprofit organizations
 

   39.   The _____ passed in 1973 required that federal contractors take affirmative action to employ disabled workers.

a.
Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act
b.
Rehabilitation Act
c.
Civil Rights Act
d.
Taft-Hartley Act
 

   40.   Which of the following is not covered under the Americans with Disabilities Act?

a.
Employees of private organizations
b.
Employment agencies
c.
State government employees
d.
Labor unions
   41.   The Americans with Disabilities Act is enforced by the _____.

a.
Department of Labor
b.
National Labor Relations Board
c.
Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs
d.
Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
 

   42.   Which of the following statements is true of the Americans with Disabilities Act?

a.
The ADA does not protect current users of illegal drugs and substances
b.
The ADA does not protect recovering addicts
c.
Impairments such as autism and bipolar disorder are not covered as disabilities
d.
Impairments such as cancer and HIV are not covered as disabilities
 

   43.   Which of the following is typically a practice of reasonable accommodation by employers toward disabled employees?

a.
Establishing glassceiling to aid the employees
b.
Providing special equipment to assist with their task
c.
Practicing nepotism to ensure that employees have a healthy work environment
d.
Providing current users of illegal drugs with better compensation
 

   44.   The _____ prohibits the use of preemployment medical exams, except for drug tests, until a job has been conditionally offered.

a.
Civil Rights Act
b.
Family and Medical Leave Act
c.
Americans with Disabilities Act
d.
Taft-Hartley Act
 

   45.   The _____ prohibits discrimination in terms, conditions, or privileges of employment against all individuals of age 40 or older working for employers having 20 or more workers.

a.
Older Workers Benefit Protections Act
b.
Rehabilitation Act
c.
Civil Rights Act
d.
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
 

   46.   According to the _____ workers over the age of 40 are entitled to receive complete accurate information on the available benefits, a list of all workers impacted in a reduction, and several weeks to decide whether or not to accept severance benefits in exchange for a waiver to sue the employer.

a.
Older Workers Benefit Protection Act
b.
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
c.
Civil Rights Act
d.
Rehabilitation Act
 

   47.   Which of the following is true of phased retirement?

a.
Employees’ workloads and pay levels are increased.
b.
Employees’ workloads and pay levels are reduced.
c.
Employees’ workloads are reduced and pay levels are increased.
d.
Employees’ workloads are increased and pay levels are reduced.
 

   48.   The _____ requires employers to verify the employment status of all employees, while not discriminating because of national origin or ethnic background.

a.
Civil Rights Act
b.
Rehabilitation Act
c.
Immigration Reform and Control Act
d.
Older Workers Benefit Protection Act
 

   49.   According to the _____ employees are required to notify their employers of military service obligations.

a.
Civil Rights Act
b.
Rehabilitation Act
c.
Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act
d.
Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act
 

   50.   Which of the following is true of the Uniformed Services Employment and Reemployment Rights Act?

a.
Uniformed military personnel are provided up to five years of active duty service leave during which the employer must hold their job.
b.
Uniformed military personnel are provided up to seven years of active duty service leave during which the employer must hold their job.
c.
The employer must compensate the military personnel during the time of active service for a period of five years.
d.
The employer must compensate the military personnel during the time of active service for a period of seven years.

 

     1.   Which of the following is true of the labor force participation rate?

a.
It is the percentage of the population working or seeking work.
b.
It is the percentage of the population that is eligible to work legally.
c.
It is the percentage of the population that is constantly changing jobs.
d.
It is the percentage of the population with graduate degrees.
     2.   Which of the following groups of workers are classified as prime-work-age workers?

a.
Workers of ages 20–40
b.
Workers of ages 25–54
c.
Workers of ages 20–60
d.
Workers of ages 22–58
     3.   The _____ is a certification that is based on a written test of a potential employee’s business math skills, oral language skills, and situational judgment.

a.
Federal Work Readiness Credential
b.
Federal Career Readiness Certificate
c.
National Work Readiness Credential
d.
National Career Readiness Certificate
     4.   The _____ is based on American college testing (ACT) work keys system, and gives scores for “reading for information, locating information, and applied math.”

a.
Federal Work Readiness Credential
b.
Federal Career Readiness Certificate
c.
National Work Readiness Credential
d.
National Career Readiness Certificate
     5.   The Bureau of Labor Statistics classifies people working _____ hours per week as part-time employees.

a.
at least 45
b.
at least 35
c.
between 35 and 45
d.
less than 35
     6.   Which of the following is true of work?

a.
Work is effort directed toward accomplishing results.
b.
A job needs to be divided into types of work so that it can be coordinated in some logical way.
c.
Ideally, the work to be done in any organization should be significantly less than the amount of work that the organization needs to have done.
d.
Work is the output that comes from the accomplishment of tasks.
     7.   Which of the following is true of a job?

a.
A job is the output that comes from the accomplishment of tasks.
b.
A job is a grouping of tasks, duties, and responsibilities that constitutes the total work assignment for an employee.
c.
Even if the tasks, duties, and responsibilities change over time, a job should not change.
d.
A job needs to be divided into types of work so that it can be coordinated in some logical way.
     8.   _____ is the study of the way work moves through an organization.

a.
Job process
b.
Workflow analysis
c.
Work process
d.
Transfer of responsibility
     9.   _____ refers to organizing tasks, duties, responsibilities, and other elements into a productive unit of work.

a.
Job planning
b.
Job analysis
c.
Job design
d.
Job redesign
   10.   _____ refers to taking an existing job and changing it to improve it.

a.
Job planning
b.
Job analysis
c.
Job design
d.
Job redesign
   11.   _____ play a significant role in job design because often they are the people who establish jobs and their design components.

a.
Managers
b.
Employees
c.
Human resource personnel
d.
Business consultants
   12.   Which of the following is true of managers’ influence and control of characteristics in an organization?

a.
Managers can influence or control both job characteristics and the basic characteristics of people.
b.
Managers can influence or control job characteristics, but usually not the basic characteristics of people.
c.
Managers can influence or control the basic characteristics of people, but usually not the job characteristics.
d.
Managers can neither influence and control job characteristics, nor can they control the basic characteristics of people.
   13.   _____ involves broadening the scope of a job by expanding the number of different tasks to be performed.

a.
Job rotation
b.
Job retention
c.
Job enlargement
d.
Job enrichment
   14.   _____is increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning, organizing, controlling, or evaluating the job.

a.
Job rotation
b.
Job retention
c.
Job enlargement
d.
Job enrichment
   15.   _____is the process of shifting a person from job to job.

a.
Job rotation
b.
Job retention
c.
Job enlargement
d.
Job enrichment
   16.   _____is the extent to which the work requires several activities for successful completion.

a.
Autonomy
b.
Skill variety
c.
Task identity
d.
Task significance
   17.   _____is the extent to which the job includes a “whole” identifiable unit of work that is carried out from start to finish and that results in a visible outcome.

a.
Autonomy
b.
Skill variety
c.
Task identity
d.
Task significance
   18.   _____is the impact the job has on other people.

a.
Autonomy
b.
Skill variety
c.
Task identity
d.
Task significance
   19.   _____is the extent of individual freedom and discretion in the work and its scheduling.

a.
Autonomy
b.
Skill variety
c.
Task identity
d.
Task significance
   20.   A _____ is formed to address specific problems, improve work processes, and enhance the overall quality of products and services.

a.
global team
b.
special-purpose team
c.
self-directed team
d.
virtual team
   21.   A _____ is composed of individuals who are assigned a cluster of tasks, duties, and responsibilities to be accomplished.

a.
vertical team
b.
special-purpose team
c.
self-directed team
d.
global team
   22.   A _____ is composed of individuals who are separated geographically but linked by communications technology.

a.
vertical team
b.
special-purpose team
c.
self-directed team
d.
virtual team
   23.   Which of the following situations is an example of a compressed workweek?

a.
Employees working for ten hours, four days a week
b.
Employees working for eight hours, five days a week
c.
Employees working for seven hours, six days a week
d.
Employees working for eight hours, seven days a week
   24.   Part-time jobs are used when less than _____ hours per week are required to do a job.

a.
40
b.
50
c.
60
d.
70
   25.   Which of the following is typically the responsibility of the HR in job analysis?

a.
To provide information to outside experts
b.
To coordinate job analysis
c.
To help complete job analysis information
d.
To request new analyses as jobs change
   26.   Which of the following is typically the responsibility of managers in job analysis?

a.
To periodically review job descriptions and specifications
b.
To coordinate job analysis
c.
To help complete job analysis information
d.
To write job descriptions and specifications
   27.   A _____ is a distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions.

a.
duty
b.
responsibility
c.
job
d.
task
   28.   A(n) _____ is a larger work segment composed of several tasks that are performed by an individual.

a.
duty
b.
obligation
c.
job
d.
responsibility
   29.   Which of the following is typically the first stage in the job analysis process?

a.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
b.
Planning the job analysis
c.
Conducting the job analysis
d.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
   30.   Which of the following is typically the last stage in the job analysis process?

a.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
b.
Conducting the job analysis
c.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions and job specifications
d.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
   31.   Identifying jobs and methodologies is a subtask of _____.

a.
developing job descriptions
b.
conducting the job analysis
c.
planning the job analysis
d.
preparing for and introducing the job analysis
   32.   Gathering job analysis data is a subtask of _____.

a.
developing job descriptions
b.
conducting the job analysis
c.
planning the job analysis
d.
preparing for and introducing the job analysis
   33.   Reviewing drafts with managers and employees is a subtask of _____.

a.
developing job descriptions
b.
conducting the job analysis
c.
planning the job analysis
d.
preparing for and introducing the job analysis
   34.   Periodically reviewing all jobs is a subtask of _____.

a.
developing job descriptions
b.
conducting the job analysis
c.
maintaining and updating job descriptions
d.
preparing for and introducing the job analysis
   35.   Jack, who works with BluClu LLC, is responsible for performing the job analysis in his organization. He has introduced and communicated the job analysis process to all his managers. Which of the following will typically be Jack’s next step?

a.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
b.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions and job specifications
c.
Planning the job analysis
d.
Conducting the job analysis
   36.   Jill, who works with SunFun LLC, is responsible for handling the job analysis in her organization. She has developed job descriptions and job specifications. Which of the following will typically be Jill’s next step?

a.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
b.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions and job specifications
c.
Planning the job analysis
d.
Conducting the job analysis
   37.   Max, who works with HiFi LLC, is responsible for managing job analysis in his organization. He is currently planning the job analysis. Which of the following should typically be Max’s next step?

a.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
b.
Conducting the job analysis
c.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
d.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions
   38.   Dave, who works with GoPhone LLC, is responsible for managing job analysis in his organization. He is currently gathering and reviewing data. Which of the following should typically be Dave’s next step?

a.
Preparing for and introducing job analysis
b.
Conducting the job analysis
c.
Developing job descriptions and job specifications
d.
Maintaining and updating job descriptions
   39.   The _____ method allows a job analyst to determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical observation and recording of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all actions.

a.
work sampling
b.
employee diary/log
c.
Position Analysis Questionnaire
d.
Managerial Position Description Questionnaire
   40.   Which of the following specialized instruments incorporates checklists?

a.
Work sampling
b.
Employee diary/log
c.
Position Analysis Questionnaire
d.
Managerial Position Description Questionnaire
   41.   Which of the following is comprised of more than 200 statements and examines a variety of dimensions, including decision making and supervising?

a.
Work sampling
b.
Employee diary/log
c.
Position Analysis Questionnaire
d.
Managerial Position Description Questionnaire
   42.   The _____ requires that organizations identify the essential job functions, which are the fundamental duties of a job.

a.
Americans with Disabilities Act
b.
Civil Rights Act
c.
Fair Labor Standards Act
d.
Disabilities Discrimination Act
   43.   A _____ identifies the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.

a.
job analysis
b.
job description
c.
job specification
d.
job review
   44.   _____ list the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) an individual needs to perform a job satisfactorily.

a.
Job analyses
b.
Job descriptions
c.
Job specifications
d.
Job reviews
   45.   Which of the following is typically the first part of the job description?

a.
Essential job functions and duties
b.
Job specifications
c.
Identification
d.
General summary
   46.   Job code and pay grade are components of job description noted under _____.

a.
job specifications
b.
essential job functions
c.
general summary
d.
identification
   47.   Which of the following components of job description is a concise statement of the general responsibilities and components that make the job different from others?

a.
Job specifications
b.
Essential job functions
c.
General summary
d.
Identification
   48.   Which of the following parts of the typical job description lists the necessary roles and duties, generally in order of importance, and contains clear, precise statements on the major tasks, duties, and responsibilities performed?

a.
Job specifications
b.
Essential job functions
c.
General summary
d.
Identification
   49.   A prospective candidate’s educational details is noted under the _____ component of job description.

a.
job specifications
b.
essential job functions
c.
general summary
d.
identification
   50.   Which of the following is typically the last part of the job description?

a.
Essential job functions and duties
b.
Job specifications
c.
Identification
d.
Disclaimers and approval
 
 

     1.   The primary objective of affirmative action plans is to identify the scope of workplace discrimination in the future.

     2.   The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission (EEOC) enforces employment laws in both private and public workplaces.

     3.   Disparate treatment occurs when either different standards are used to judge individuals or the same standard is used but it is not related to the individuals’ jobs.

     4.   Restricting employees from wearing garments that might get caught in machinery is a form of discrimination and not a business necessity.

     5.   Employers cannot discriminate on the basis of sex, religion, or national origin even if the characteristics can be justified as a bona fide occupational qualification.

     6.   Employers are allowed to retaliate against individuals who file discrimination charges.

     7.   Title VII of the Civil Rights Act states that it is illegal for an employer to fail or refuse to hire or discharge any individual because of such individual’s national origin.

     8.   All educational institutions are exempted from title VII of the Equal Employment Opportunity Act of 1972.

     9.   The Civil Rights Act of 1991 requires that employers show that an employment practice is job related for the position and consistent with business necessity.

   10.   Executive Orders 11246, 11375, and 11478 require federal contractors to take affirmative action to compensate for historical discrimination against women, minorities, and handicapped individuals.

   11.   The use of employee referral programs can contribute toward discrimination at a workplace.

   12.   The Pregnancy Discrimination Act (PDA) requires that employers treat maternity leave the same as other personal or medical leaves.

   13.   The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) of 1993 is applicable only to women.

   14.   Provisions of the Affordable Care Act (2010) allow for break time and a private place for nursing mothers to express breast milk for one year after the birth of a child.

   15.   The Equal Pay Act of 1963 requires employers to pay similar wage rates for similar work without regard to gender.

   16.   Pay equity is the idea that pay for jobs requiring comparable levels of knowledge, skill, and ability should be similar, even if actual duties differ significantly.

   17.   Differences in pay between men and women in the same jobs are permitted when there is a difference in the quality of work.

   18.   Nepotism is the practice of preventing relatives from working for the same employer.

   19.   Workplace romances are considered risky because they have great potential for causing conflict.

   20.   A hostile environment harassment is a type of sexual harassment in which employment outcomes are typically linked to the individual granting sexual favors.

   21.   A quid pro quo harassment exists when an individual’s work performance or psychological well-being is unreasonably affected by intimidating or offensive working conditions.

   22.   The Rehabilitation Act was initially only applicable to federal contractors.

   23.   The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) covers all state government employees.

   24.   The EEOC’s final regulations exclude bipolar disorder from its approved list of disabilities.

   25.   The Americans with Disabilities Act includes restrictions on obtaining and retaining medically related information on applicants and employees.

   26.   Congress passed the Genetic Information Nondiscrimination Act (GINA) in 2009 to limit the use of genetic information by health insurance plans and to prohibit employment discrimination on the basis of this information.

   27.   The Older Workers Benefit Protection Act ensures that older workers are not compelled or pressured into waiving their rights under the ADEA.

   28.   The Immigration Reform and Control Act (IRCA) requires employers to verify the employment status of all employees, while not discriminating because of national origin or ethnic background.

   29.   Under the Vietnam Era Veterans Readjustment Assistance Act, employees are required to notify their employers of military service obligations.

   30.   Through cultural awareness training, organizations try to build greater understanding of the differences among people.

 

     1.   According to the Bureau of Labor Statistics, compared to the labor force of the past, today’s workplace force is “younger, and composed of more men.”

     2.   The labor force participation rate is the percentage of the population working or seeking work.

     3.   The Bureau of Labor Statistics classifies people working between 35 and 40 hours per week as part-time workers.

     4.   Work is effort directed toward accomplishing results.

     5.   A job is a grouping of tasks, duties, and responsibilities that constitutes the total work assignment for an employee.

     6.   Workflow analysis is the study of the way work moves through an organization.

     7.   Workflow analysis usually begins with the evaluation of activities that lead to the output.

     8.   Workflow analysis that focuses on making an organization more effective and efficient can be used only in manufacturing organizations.

     9.   Job design refers to organizing tasks, duties, responsibilities, and other elements into a productive unit of work.

   10.   Contingent workers are full time employees.

   11.   Job enlargement is increasing the depth of a job by adding responsibility for planning, organizing, controlling, or evaluating the job.

   12.   Job enrichment involves broadening the scope of a job by expanding the number of different tasks to be performed.

   13.   Job rotation is the process of shifting a person from job to job.

   14.   A self-directed team is formed to address specific problems, improve work processes, and enhance the overall quality of products and services.

   15.   A special-purpose team is composed of individuals who are assigned a cluster of tasks, duties, and responsibilities to be accomplished.

   16.   A virtual team is composed of individuals who are separated geographically but linked by communications technology.

   17.   Telework means that employees work via electronic, telecommunications, and Internet means.

   18.   Shift differential is the additional pay that employees receive for working the evening or night shifts.

   19.   A duty is a distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions.

   20.   Responsibilities are obligations to perform certain tasks and duties.

   21.   Competencies are individual capabilities that can be linked to performance by individuals or teams.

   22.   Drafting job descriptions and specifications is typically the first step in the job analysis process.

   23.   Reviewing existing job documentation is typically the last step in the job analysis process.

   24.   The work sampling method of job analysis allows a job analyst to determine the content and pace of a typical workday through statistical sampling of certain actions rather than through continuous observation and timing of all actions.

   25.   The managerial job analysis questionnaire is a specialized instrument that incorporates checklists, where each job is analyzed on 27 dimensions composed of 187 “elements.”

   26.   Comprised of more than 200 statements, the position analysis questionnaire examines a variety of managerial dimensions, including decision making and supervising.

   27.   A functional definition of what is done in a job can be generated by examining the three components of data, people, and things.

   28.   Marginal job functions are duties that are part of a job but are incidental or ancillary to the purpose and nature of the job.

   29.   A job description identifies the tasks, duties, and responsibilities of a job.

   30.   Job specifications list the knowledge, skills, and abilities (KSAs) an individual needs to perform a job satisfactorily.

 

1. Which of the following statements is true of the functions of human resource management?

a.
It is a clerical operation in large companies concerned with payroll and employee records.
b.
It refers to a department which looks into the legal ramifications of policies and procedures that affect only the employees in an organization.
c.
It is a function concerned with costs, planning, and the implications of various strategies for organizations.
d.
It refers to a design of formal systems in an organization to manage human talent for accomplishing organizational goals.
 

       2.    A useful way to measure the productivity of a workforce is:

a.
to determine the total cost of people required for each unit of output.
b.
to determine the total cost of people required for an output of 100 units.
c.
to determine the total cost of people required to complete a day’s worth of work.
d.
to determine the total cost of people required to complete a year’s worth of work.
 

       3.    How is unit labor cost computed?

a.
By dividing the total cost of workers by the total level of output
b.
By dividing the total level of output by the total cost of workers
c.
By dividing the average level of output by the average cost of workers
d.
By dividing the average cost of workers by their average levels of output
 

       4.    _____, a method to increase employee productivity, involves eliminating layers of management and changing reporting relationships, as well as cutting staff through downsizing, layoffs, and early retirement buyout programs.

a.
Organizational restructuring
b.
Redesigning work
c.
Aligning human resource activity
d.
Outsourcing
 

       5.    _____, a method to increase employee productivity, involves having fewer employees who perform multiple job tasks.

a.
Organizational restructuring
b.
Aligning HR activity
c.
Outsourcing
d.
Redesigning work
 

       6.    _____, a method to increase employee productivity, includes ensuring that staffing, training and development, performance management, and compensation are not working to offset productivity.

a.
Outsourcing
b.
Redesigning work
c.
Aligning human resource activity
d.
Organizational restructuring
 

       7.    Which of the following is a part of the process of restructuring an organization?

a.
Aiding in mergers and acquisitions
b.
Reshaping jobs because of technology changes
c.
Attracting and retaining employees
d.
Using domestic vendors instead of employees
 

       8.    Which of the following is a part of the process of redesigning work?

a.
Reshaping jobs because of technology changes
b.
Revising organizational structures
c.
Training, developing, and evaluating employees
d.
Outsourcing operations internationally
 

       9.    Which of the following is a part of the process of aligning human resource activities?

a.
Changing workloads and combining jobs
b.
Revising organizational structure
c.
Using domestic vendors instead of employees
d.
Training, developing, and evaluating employees
 

    10.    Which of the following is a part of the process of outsourcing analyses?

a.
Revising organizational structure
b.
Using domestic vendors instead of employees
c.
Changing workloads and combining jobs
d.
Attracting and retaining employees
 

    11.    Which of the following is true of organizational culture?

a.
It increases the diversity of an organization.
b.
It decreases the diversity of an organization.
c.
It tells people how to behave in an organization.
d.
It does not take a very long time to evolve.
 

    12.    Which of the following is a part of the human resource function of employee and labor relations?

a.
Human resource policies
b.
Health and wellness
c.
Human resource effectiveness
d.
Affirmative action
 

    13.    Which of the following is a part of the strategy and planning function of human resource management?

a.
Diversity
b.
Human resource retention
c.
Job analysis
d.
Compensation
 

    14.    Which of the following is a part of the staffing function of human resource management?

a.
Recruiting
b.
Training
c.
Orientation
d.
Career planning
 

    15.    Which of the following is true of the administrative role of human resource departments?

a.
It involves managing most human resource activities in keeping with strategies and operations that have been identified by management.
b.
It involves helping to define the strategy relative to human capital and its contribution to organizational results.
c.
It involves identifying possible strategies to attract and retain talent with a focus on organizational growth.
d.
It focuses on record keeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation.
 

    16.    Which of the following is true of the operational role of human resource departments?

a.
It involves focusing on clerical administration and recordkeeping, including essential legal paperwork and policy implementation.
b.
It involves identifying possible strategies to attract and retain talent with a focus on organizational growth.
c.
It involves managing most human resource activities in keeping with the strategies that have been identified by management.
d.
It involves helping to define the strategy relative to human capital and its contribution to organizational results.
 

    17.    Which of the following has traditionally been the dominant role for human resources?

a.
Operational role
b.
Employee advocate role
c.
Administrative role
d.
Strategic role
 

    18.    Sara, a human resource manager at Comp Inc., is moving from an administrative role in the human resource department to an operational role. Which of the following is best describes Sara’s change of role?

a.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns 
b.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
c.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
d.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
 

    19.    Bob, a human resources executive at Axis Inc., is moving from an operational role in the human resources department to a strategic role. Which of the following best describes Bob’s change of role?

a.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
b.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
c.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
d.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
 

    20.    David, a human resources manager at RedWall Inc., is moving from an administrative role in the human resource department to a strategic role. Which of the following best describes David’s change of role?

a.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to processing legal paperwork
b.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
c.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
d.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
 

    21.    Mike, a human resources executive at Oyster Studios, is moving from an operational role in the human resources department to an administrative role. Which of the following best describes Mike’s change of role?

a.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
b.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
c.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
d.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to processing legal paperwork
 

    22.    Donna, a human resources manager at Loch Inc., is moving from a strategic role in the human resources department to an operational role. Which of the following best describes Donna’s change of role?

a.
Moving from helping define the strategy to maThe administrative role of human resource involves serving as employee “champion” for employee issues and concerns.

nage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
b.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
c.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
d.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to processing legal paperwork
 

    23.    Sunny, a human resources executive at FlyHi Inc., is moving from a strategic role in the human resources department to an administrative role. Which of the following best describes Sunny’s change of role?

a.
Moving from processing legal paperwork to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
b.
Moving from serving as a “champion” of employee concerns to helping define the strategy to manage human capital
c.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to serving as a “champion” of employee concerns
d.
Moving from helping define the strategy to manage human capital to processing legal paperwork
 

    24.    A(n) _____ is a citizen of one country working in a second country and employed by an organization headquartered in the first country.

a.
host-country national
b.
expatriate
c.
third-country national
d.
independent contractor
 

    25.    A(n) _____ is a citizen of one country who is working in that country and employed by an organization headquartered in a second country.

a.
expatriate
b.
independent contractor
c.
host-country national
d.
third-country national
 

    26.    A(n) _____ is a citizen of one country who is working in a second country and employed by an organization headquartered in a third country.

a.
expatriate
b.
second-country national
c.
host-country national
d.
third-country national
 

    27.    Raul, a U.S. citizen, works in Mexico for an organization headquartered in the United States. Which of the following statements is true of Raul?

a.
He is a host-country national.
b.
He is an independent contractor.
c.
He is a third-country national.
d.
He is an expatriate.
 

    28.    Jane, a citizen of the country of Aria, works in the country of Polia for an organization headquartered in Aria. Which of the following best describes Jane?

a.
She is a host-country national.
b.
She is a third-country national.
c.
She is an independent contractor.
d.
She is an expatriate.
 

    29.    Peter, a U.S. citizen, works in the United States for an organization headquartered in Mexico. Which of the following best describes Peter?

a.
He is an independent contractor.
b.
He is a third-country national.
c.
He is a host-country national.
d.
He is an expatriate.
 

    30.    Smith, a U.S. citizen, works in his country for an organization headquartered in a different country. Which of the following best describes Smith?

a.
He is a third-country national.
b.
He is a host-country national.
c.
He is a third-country national.
d.
He is an independent contractor.
 

    31.    Joe, a U.S. citizen, works in Mexico for an organization headquartered in the United Kingdom. Which of the following best describes Joe?

a.
He is an expatriate.
b.
He is a host-country national.
c.
He is an inpatriate.
d.
He is a third-country national.
 

    32.    Which of the following is true of the common challenges for global human resource?

a.
Companies feel that it is easier to be locally flexible as they expand.
b.
Executives always feel that their companies are good at transferring lessons from one country to another.
c.
Sharing the cost of distant centers decreases the expense of local operations.
d.
Emerging market opportunities expose companies to unfamiliar risks that may be difficult to analyze.
 

    33.    Which of the following is a disadvantage of an aging workforce in economically developed countries?

a.
Having to provide retirement benefits
b.
Having to decrease the span of control
c.
Having to provide flexible work arrangements
d.
Having to replace experience and talent
 

    34.    Which of the following is an advantage of using a contingent workforce?

a.
Committed employees
b.
No training needed
c.
Lower cost
d.
Wider span of control
    35.    Which of the following is true about a Human Resource Information System?

a.
It is a software that allowed human resources to run its own reports and make changes without help from IT.
b.
It is a software that runs in a vendor’s data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service.
c.
It is a software that runs only on the Cloud and allows self-service.
d.
It is a software that did payroll, kept track of employees, and ran reports for human resource managers with support from IT.
 

    36.    Which of the following is true of PeopleSoft?

a.
It is a software that runs in a vendor’s data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service.
b.
It is a software that allowed human resources to run its own support and make changes without help from IT.
c.
It is a software that runs only on the Cloud and allows self-service.
d.
It is a software that kept track of employees for human resource managers with support from IT.
 

    37.    Which of the following is true of Software-as-a-Service?

a.
It is a software that runs in a vendor’s data center or on the Cloud and it allows self-service.
b.
It is a software that allowed the human resource unit to run its own support and make changes with help from IT.
c.
It is a software that runs only on the Cloud and allows self-service.
d.
It is a software that kept track of employees and ran reports for human resource managers with support from IT.
 

    38.    Which of the following is a difference between a Human Resource Information System (HRIS) and PeopleSoft?

a.
PeopleSoft used the Cloud while an HRIS used a vendor’s data center.
b.
PeopleSoft did not allow human resource units to run its own reports whereas an HRIS allowed it.
c.
An HRIS was run on support from IT people while PeopleSoft did not require any support from IT.
d.
An HRIS used the Cloud while PeopleSoft used a vendor’s data center.
 

    39.    Which of the following is the difference between a Human Resource Information Systems (HRIS) and Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)?

a.
An HRIS uses a vendor’s data center, while SaaS uses the Cloud.
b.
An HRIS uses the Cloud, while SaaS uses a vendor’s data center.
c.
SaaS requires support from IT, while an HRIS allows self-service.
d.
SaaS allows self-service, while an HRIS requires support from IT.
 

    40.    In the context of social media, the disclosure of which of the following is most likely to be considered a risk by employers?

a.
Policy changes
b.
Customer lists
c.
Competitive service details
d.
Operational changes
 

    41.    Which of the following is a recommendation of the Organization for Economic Cooperation?

a.
It has recommended that global multinational firms give equal employment opportunities to all segments of the society.
b.
It has recommended that all countries should encourage and facilitate global trade and open their financial markets to globalization.
c.
It has recommended that global multinational firms establish and implement stricter ethical standards to aid business development.
d.
It has recommended and encouraged free trade policies like the North American Free Trade Agreement between Canada, Mexico, and the United States.
 

    42.    Which of the following is true of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act?

a.
It was passed in 2000 by Congress to encourage free trade between Canada, Mexico, and the United States.
b.
It was passed in 2002 by Congress to make certain that publicly traded companies follow accounting controls that could reduce the likelihood of illegal behavior.
c.
It was passed in 2006 by Congress to ensure stricter adherence of guidelines in the hiring practices of immigrant workers in the American workforce.
d.
It was passed in 2004 by Congress to encourage foreign direct investments by providing tax subsidies to increase the rate of return for investments.
 

    43.    In the context of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, the biggest concerns are linked to:

a.
immigrant workers.
b.
executive compensation.
c.
employee productivity.
d.
workplace safety.
 

    44.    Josh, a human resource executive, works with AmPro Inc. Recently, he moved from a generalized role in the HR department to a senior role. Which of the following skills does Josh have to build to succeed in his new role?

a.
Administrative capabilities
b.
Operational knowledge
c.
Ability to lead changes
d.
Legal capabilities
 

    45.    A person who is responsible for performing a variety of human resource activities is known as a _____.

a.
human resource specialist
b.
human resource planner
c.
human resource strategist
d.
human resource generalist
 

    46.    Which of the following is a specialized human resource organization?

a.
WorldatWork Association
b.
Organization for Economic Cooperation
c.
Ethics Resource Center
d.
U.S. Small Business Association
 

    47.    Josh, a human resource manager, used to handle employee recruitment and compensation for his organization. After a promotion, he was responsible for handling employee recruitment, compensation, and benefits. Which of the following is true of Josh?

a.
Both the roles played by Josh are generalist roles.
b.
Both the roles played by Josh are specialist roles.
c.
Josh moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
d.
Josh moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
 

    48.    Suzie, a human resource executive, works with ZedNet Inc. She was responsible for employee recruitment and compensation. After a promotion, she was made responsible only for recruitment. Which of the following is true of Suzie?

a.
Both the roles that Suzie played were generalist roles.
b.
Both the roles that Suzie played were specialist roles.
c.
Suzie moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
d.
Suzie moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
 

    49.    Ramone, a human resource manager, works for TelVille Inc. Initially, he was responsible only for recruitment. After a promotion, he was made responsible exclusively for employee benefits. Which of the following is true of Ramone?

a.
Both the roles that Ramone played were generalist roles.
b.
Both the roles that Ramone played were specialist roles.
c.
Ramone moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
d.
Ramone moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
 

    50.    Max, a human resource executive, works at Axis Inc. Initially, he was responsible only for recruitment but after his promotion was responsible for recruitment, compensation, and benefits. Which of the following best describes Max?

a.
Both the roles played by Max were generalist roles.
b.
Both the roles played by Max were specialist roles.
c.
Max moved from a specialist role to a generalist role.
d.
Max moved from a generalist role to a specialist role.
 
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